Nursing Elites

1. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?

• A. At the level of the umbilicus
• B. Two centimeters above the umbilicus
• C. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
• D. In the pelvic cavity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.

2. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

• A. nausea
• B. headache
• C. vertigo
• D. tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

3. While taking the vital signs of a pregnant client admitted to the labor unit, a nurse notes a temperature of 100.6°F, pulse rate of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?

• A. Notify the registered nurse of the findings.
• B. Document the findings in the client's medical record.
• C. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour.
• D. Continue collecting subjective and objective data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the registered nurse of the findings. In a pregnant client, the normal temperature range is 98°F to 99.6°F, with a pulse rate of 60 to 90 beats/min and respirations of 12 to 20 breaths/min. A temperature of 100.4°F or higher, along with an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests a possible infection. Immediate notification of the registered nurse is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. While documenting the findings is essential, the priority lies in promptly escalating abnormal vital signs for assessment and management. Rechecking vital signs in 1 hour may delay necessary interventions for a deteriorating condition. Continuing to collect data is relevant but should not delay informing the registered nurse when abnormal vital signs are present.

4. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

5. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

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