Nursing Elites

1. A hepatitis B screen is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate the presence of antigens in the client's blood. On the basis of this finding, the nurse makes which determination?

• A. Hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine will be administered to the newborn infant soon after birth
• B. The results are negative.
• C. The results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B
• D. The client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hepatitis B screen is performed to identify antigens in maternal blood. If antigens are present, it indicates that the mother is a carrier, and the newborn will need to receive hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine soon after birth to prevent transmission. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect because the presence of antigens indicates a positive result, not a negative one or the absence of hepatitis B in the mother. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests the client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines, which is not the immediate action required when antigens are found in the maternal blood.

2. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

• A. nausea
• B. headache
• C. vertigo
• D. tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

3. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

• A. Tongue symmetry
• B. Eye movements
• C. Facial symmetry
• D. Corneal reflex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

4. When an elder client asks the nurse whether he will be capable of sexual activity in old age, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Elder adults are psychologically and physically capable of engaging in sexual activity regardless of age-related changes."?
• B. "If you haven't been sexually active throughout your life, you will not be able to participate in sexual activity in old age."?
• C. "When intercourse isn't possible, many of your sexual needs can be met through intimacy and touch."?
• D. "You might find it takes longer for you to achieve an erection, but you can maintain it for a longer time."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse when an elder client asks about capability for sexual activity in old age is to provide reassurance and open communication. Choice A is the correct answer as it acknowledges that elder adults can engage in sexual activity both physically and psychologically despite age-related changes. This response encourages further discussion and addresses the client's concerns. Choices B, C, and D contain some truths but are not the most therapeutic responses. Choice B implies that past sexual activity is a prerequisite for sexual activity in old age, which is not entirely accurate as intimacy can be experienced in various ways. Choice C, while true about alternative ways to meet sexual needs, does not directly address the client's question about sexual activity. Choice D focuses on the physiological aspect of sexual function, which is important but not the most appropriate initial response to the client's query.

5. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

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