Nursing Elites

1. While assisting with data collection on a client, a nurse hears a bruit over the abdominal aorta. What action should the nurse prioritize based on this finding?

• A. Document the finding
• B. Palpate the area for a mass
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Percuss the abdomen to check for tympany

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Detection of a bruit over the aorta during abdominal assessment may indicate the presence of an aneurysm. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider to further evaluate the situation. Palpating the area or percussing the abdomen could potentially increase the risk of an aneurysm rupture. While documenting the finding is important, the priority is to ensure timely intervention by involving the healthcare provider.

2. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:

• A. light or fair complexion.
• B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
• C. certain diet and foods.
• D. history of bad sunburns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.

3. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

4. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

5. When a client who is having trouble conceiving says to the nurse, 'I have started taking ginseng,' the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "There is some evidence that ginseng may enhance in vitro sperm motility."?
• B. "Some studies show that ginseng enhances in vitro sperm motility."?
• C. "Ginseng is not proven to be effective for infertility; have you considered other options?"?
• D. "It's probably not going to hurt you, but it's also probably not going to help. Let's look at some other alternatives."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Some studies have shown that ginseng enhances in vitro sperm motility, making Choice B the correct response. It directly addresses the client's comments about taking ginseng and provides valuable information regarding its potential effect on sperm motility. Alternative therapies are often sought by couples struggling with infertility, and acknowledging the potential benefits of ginseng can empower the client. Choice A is incorrect as it slightly misrepresents the evidence by overgeneralizing its effectiveness. Choice C dismisses ginseng without acknowledging its potential benefits, potentially closing off a fruitful discussion with the client. Choice D, while neutral, misses the opportunity to validate the client's choice and explore further options collaboratively. It is crucial for nurses to respect clients' choices, provide accurate information, and guide them effectively in exploring different alternatives.

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