Nursing Elites

1. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?

• A. builds towers with several blocks
• B. tries to color within the lines
• C. says 'Mine!' when playing with toys
• D. tries to jump rope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'says 'Mine!' when playing with toys.' At the age of 2, children are in the stage of parallel play and are possessive of their belongings, hence saying 'Mine!' is an age-appropriate behavior. Building towers with blocks (choice A) involves more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities, which are beyond what most 2-year-olds can do. Trying to color within the lines (choice B) requires fine motor skills that are typically not developed at age 2. Jumping rope (choice D) involves coordination and balance that are beyond the capabilities of a 2-year-old child.

2. A home health care nurse is visiting a male African American client who was recently discharged from the hospital. Which family member does the nurse ensure is present when teaching the client about his prescribed medications?

• A. The client's grandson
• B. The client's mother
• C. The client's father
• D. The client's son

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the African American family structure, the woman, especially the mother, often plays a central role in healthcare decisions and maintaining family health. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client's mother in teaching him about his prescribed medications as she may be responsible for his care and treatment decisions. While other family members may also be involved, the African American family is often matrifocal, emphasizing the importance of the mother's role. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's mother is present during medication teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the traditional African American family structure and the role of women in healthcare decisions.

3. When preparing a client for surgery, the graduate nurse realizes the operative permit has not been signed. The client tells the nurse he understands the procedure but received his preoperative medication approximately 10 minutes prior. The appropriate action would be:

• A. Have the client sign the permit, as he verbalizes understanding.
• B. Witness the form after having the client sign it.
• C. Have his wife sign the form as she witnessed him saying he wants the surgery.
• D. Call the surgical area and explain the surgery will have to be cancelled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to call the surgical area and explain that the surgery will have to be cancelled. The client must sign the operative permit or any other legal document before receiving preoperative medication. Without the signed permit, the surgery cannot proceed to ensure the client's safety and legal compliance. Having the client sign the permit, witnessing the form after the client signs it, or having someone else sign the form are all inappropriate actions and do not address the legal requirement of the client's signature before receiving preoperative medication.

4. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

5. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

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