Nursing Elites

1. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?

• A. builds towers with several blocks
• B. tries to color within the lines
• C. says 'Mine!' when playing with toys
• D. tries to jump rope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'says 'Mine!' when playing with toys.' At the age of 2, children are in the stage of parallel play and are possessive of their belongings, hence saying 'Mine!' is an age-appropriate behavior. Building towers with blocks (choice A) involves more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities, which are beyond what most 2-year-olds can do. Trying to color within the lines (choice B) requires fine motor skills that are typically not developed at age 2. Jumping rope (choice D) involves coordination and balance that are beyond the capabilities of a 2-year-old child.

2. The mother of a toddler asks the nurse when she will know that her child is ready to start toilet training. The nurse tells the mother that which observation is a sign of physical readiness?

• A. The child no longer has temper tantrums.
• B. The child can remove his or her own clothing.
• C. The child has been walking for 2 years.
• D. The child can eat using a fork and knife.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Signs of physical readiness for toilet training include the child's ability to remove his or her own clothing. This ability indicates the child has developed the necessary fine motor skills to manage clothing during toilet training. The other choices are incorrect because temper tantrums, walking for a specific period, and using utensils are not indicators of physical readiness for toilet training.

3. A nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider in performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In which position does the nurse place the client for this examination?

• A. Prone
• B. Left side-lying
• C. Sims
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is exposed. The lithotomy position provides optimal access for the healthcare provider to perform the examination effectively. The prone position refers to lying on the stomach, which is not suitable for a gynecological exam. The Sims position is a left side-lying position primarily used for administering enemas, not for gynecological examinations.

4. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

5. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce, eggs, and butterscotch do not affect LES pressure and are less likely to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD. Therefore, clients who are prone to developing heartburn due to GERD should avoid consuming chocolate to manage their symptoms effectively.

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