Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a day-care setting is planning play activities for 2- and 3-year-old children. Which toys are most appropriate for these activities?

• A. Finger paints and card games
• B. Blocks and push-pull toys
• C. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys
• D. Simple board games and puzzles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate toys for 2- and 3-year-old children in a day-care setting are blocks and push-pull toys. Toddlers enjoy objects of different textures like clay, sand, finger paints, and bubbles, as well as push-pull toys, large balls, and sand and water play. They also like activities such as blocks, painting, coloring with large crayons, large puzzles, and playing with trucks or dolls. Finger paints and card games may be more suitable for older children. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys are generally more appropriate for preschoolers. Blocks and push-pull toys are beneficial for young children as they help in developing fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, spatial awareness, and creativity. These toys also encourage imaginative play and problem-solving, making them ideal choices for toddlers.

2. The school nurse is conducting health screenings on schoolchildren. During the screening, she identifies a child with the behavioral characteristics of attention deficit disorder. Which of the following behaviors is consistent with this disorder?

• A. slow speech development
• B. overreaction to stimuli from the surroundings
• C. inability to carry on a conversation
• D. concrete thinking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'overreaction to stimuli from the surroundings.' Children with attention deficit disorder often exhibit hypersensitivity to stimuli, leading to overreactions. Slow speech development is not a hallmark of attention deficit disorder; it is more associated with other learning disabilities. While children with this disorder may have difficulty focusing, they can usually carry on a conversation. Concrete thinking is not a common characteristic of attention deficit disorder, as individuals with this disorder may struggle with abstract thinking and impulsivity.

3. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

4. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

5. A nurse is participating in a planning conference to improve dietary measures for an older client experiencing dysphagia. Which action should the nurse suggest including in the plan of care?

• A. Monitoring the client during meals to ensure that food is swallowed
• B. Encouraging the client to feed themselves
• C. Consulting with the physician regarding feeding through an enteral tube
• D. Ensuring that the diet consists of both solids and liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, ensuring successful swallowing of food and preventing aspiration is crucial. Therefore, the nurse should suggest monitoring the client closely during meals to provide assistance as needed. While a balanced diet is important, special considerations like adding thickeners for liquids may be required for dysphagia clients. Consulting with a physician about enteral tube feeding should be based on the severity of the condition, making it a premature step without clear indications. Encouraging self-feeding may not be appropriate for dysphagia clients who require close monitoring and assistance, as it could increase the risk of complications.

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