NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse in a day-care setting is planning play activities for 2- and 3-year-old children. Which toys are most appropriate for these activities?
- A. Finger paints and card games
- B. Blocks and push-pull toys
- C. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys
- D. Simple board games and puzzles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate toys for 2- and 3-year-old children in a day-care setting are blocks and push-pull toys. Toddlers enjoy objects of different textures like clay, sand, finger paints, and bubbles, as well as push-pull toys, large balls, and sand and water play. They also like activities such as blocks, painting, coloring with large crayons, large puzzles, and playing with trucks or dolls. Finger paints and card games may be more suitable for older children. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys are generally more appropriate for preschoolers. Blocks and push-pull toys are beneficial for young children as they help in developing fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, spatial awareness, and creativity. These toys also encourage imaginative play and problem-solving, making them ideal choices for toddlers.
2. A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?
- A. a banana
- B. grapefruit
- C. a salami sandwich
- D. avocado slices
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is grapefruit. Clients taking MAO Inhibitors like phenelzine (Nardil) should avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit is a suitable choice as it is not high in tyramine. Bananas, avocados, and salami are foods that should be avoided due to their tyramine content, which can interact adversely with MAO Inhibitors. Therefore, choosing grapefruit is the safest option for the client.
3. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Ondansetron
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
4. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Ask the parents to allow the infant to lie on his stomach to promote muscle development.
- B. Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.
- C. Document the findings as abnormal in the nurse's notes.
- D. Explain to the parents that their child is likely to have developmental delays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.
5. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:
- A. Gravida 2, para 6
- B. Gravida 6, para 2
- C. Gravida 3, para 6
- D. Gravida 2, para 2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.
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