Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a day-care setting is planning play activities for 2- and 3-year-old children. Which toys are most appropriate for these activities?

• A. Finger paints and card games
• B. Blocks and push-pull toys
• C. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys
• D. Simple board games and puzzles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate toys for 2- and 3-year-old children in a day-care setting are blocks and push-pull toys. Toddlers enjoy objects of different textures like clay, sand, finger paints, and bubbles, as well as push-pull toys, large balls, and sand and water play. They also like activities such as blocks, painting, coloring with large crayons, large puzzles, and playing with trucks or dolls. Finger paints and card games may be more suitable for older children. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys are generally more appropriate for preschoolers. Blocks and push-pull toys are beneficial for young children as they help in developing fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, spatial awareness, and creativity. These toys also encourage imaginative play and problem-solving, making them ideal choices for toddlers.

2. A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?

• A. Scoliosis
• B. Bone deformity
• C. Heberden nodules
• D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.

3. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?

• A. age
• B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
• C. Mexican-American heritage
• D. 20/80 vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.

4. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce, eggs, and butterscotch do not affect LES pressure and are less likely to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD. Therefore, clients who are prone to developing heartburn due to GERD should avoid consuming chocolate to manage their symptoms effectively.

5. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding the motor development of a 24-month-old child. Which activities would the nurse expect the mother to report that the child can perform?

• A. Go to the bathroom without help
• B. Dress himself appropriately
• C. Put on and tie his shoes
• D. Align two or more blocks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By 24 months of age, a child can perform various activities. While the child may be able to put on simple items of clothing, distinguishing front from back might still be a challenge. They may also be able to zip large zippers, put on shoes, wash and dry their hands, align two or more blocks, and turn book pages one at a time. However, the fine motor skill required to tie shoes is usually not developed at this age. Full independence in dressing, using the bathroom, and eating typically occurs around 4 to 5 years of age. Therefore, the correct expectation for a 24-month-old child would be aligning two or more blocks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they represent skills that are usually achieved at a later age.

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