Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a day-care setting is planning play activities for 2- and 3-year-old children. Which toys are most appropriate for these activities?

• A. Finger paints and card games
• B. Blocks and push-pull toys
• C. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys
• D. Simple board games and puzzles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate toys for 2- and 3-year-old children in a day-care setting are blocks and push-pull toys. Toddlers enjoy objects of different textures like clay, sand, finger paints, and bubbles, as well as push-pull toys, large balls, and sand and water play. They also like activities such as blocks, painting, coloring with large crayons, large puzzles, and playing with trucks or dolls. Finger paints and card games may be more suitable for older children. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys are generally more appropriate for preschoolers. Blocks and push-pull toys are beneficial for young children as they help in developing fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, spatial awareness, and creativity. These toys also encourage imaginative play and problem-solving, making them ideal choices for toddlers.

2. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

• A. Near vision
• B. Central vision
• C. Peripheral vision
• D. Ocular movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

3. When should rehabilitation services begin?

• A. when the client enters the health care system.
• B. after the client requests rehabilitation services
• C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
• D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can help prevent complications, improve recovery, and enhance overall well-being. Option B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request services may lead to delays in starting treatment, potentially affecting the recovery process. Option C is incorrect as rehabilitation can often commence even when the client's physical condition is not fully stabilized, as early intervention is crucial for progress. Option D is incorrect as beginning rehabilitation only after hospital discharge may not be ideal, as early intervention within the healthcare system is preferred for a more effective recovery journey.

4. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. notify the physician of the drainage
• B. change the dressing
• C. reinforce the dressing
• D. apply an abdominal binder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of a classic cholecystectomy resection, serosanguinous drainage is an expected finding postoperatively due to the nature of the surgery. The appropriate intervention in this situation is to reinforce the dressing. Changing the dressing prematurely can increase the risk of introducing infection. Applying an abdominal binder is not recommended as it can obstruct the visualization of the dressing and the underlying wound, making it difficult to monitor for any complications or changes in drainage. Notifying the physician may be necessary if there are significant changes in the drainage characteristics or other concerning signs, but the immediate action should be to reinforce the dressing to maintain a clean and secure environment for wound healing.

5. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

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