Nursing Elites

1. When caring for an elderly client and providing education, which of the following would be the least appropriate for the nurse to do?

• A. The nurse speaks loudly.
• B. The nurse allows additional time after each instruction to allow the client to process.
• C. The nurse provides supplemental written resources.
• D. The nurse breaks up the education into multiple shorter sessions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Speaking loudly is inappropriate when caring for an elderly client. It is essential to assess the client for a hearing impairment and provide appropriate assistance if needed. Elderly clients may require more time to process information due to slower reaction times, benefit from shorter sessions as they fatigue easily, and can absorb supplemental written resources effectively. Therefore, speaking loudly may not be conducive to effective communication and may not cater to the specific needs of the elderly client, unlike the other options provided.

2. The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:

• A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible
• B. taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul
• C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death
• D. supporting the needs of the family and client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The goals of palliative care include choices A, B, and D. Choice C, 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death,' is not part of palliative care. Palliative care involves giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible, taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul, and supporting the needs of the family and client. Interventions are crucial in palliative care to ensure the comfort and well-being of the client until the end of life. Therefore, the correct answer is that no interventions are needed because the client is near death.

3. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

4. After breast reconstruction secondary to breast cancer, the nurse should recognize which of the following expected client outcomes as evidence of a favorable response to nursing interventions related to disturbed body image?

• A. maintaining adequate tissue perfusion
• B. demonstrating behaviors that reduce fears
• C. restored body integrity
• D. remaining free of infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'restored body integrity.' This outcome is crucial in addressing disturbed body image following breast reconstruction. Restored body integrity reflects a positive perception of one's body after surgery, contributing to improved body image. Choices A, 'maintaining adequate tissue perfusion,' are more related to physiological outcomes and are not directly linked to body image concerns. Choice B, 'demonstrating behaviors that reduce fears,' is associated with anxiety management, not body image. Choice D, 'remaining free of infection,' pertains to preventing infections and does not directly address body image concerns.

5. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?

• A. Back of the fetus
• B. Carotid artery in the neck of the fetus
• C. Brachial area of one extremity of the fetus
• D. Chest of the fetus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.

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