NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, where might they be best served?
- A. Rehabilitation center.
- B. Extended care facility.
- C. Hospice.
- D. Crisis intervention center.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, they are best served by Hospice. Hospice offers a more humanized alternative care for dying clients compared to hospitals, focusing on comfort and quality of life in the final stages of life. It provides a specialized interdisciplinary team of health care professionals who work together to manage client care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a rehabilitation center focuses on physical therapy, an extended care facility provides long-term care for activities of daily living, and a crisis intervention center deals with immediate psychological or social crises, none of which cater to the specific needs of clients facing the end stage of a terminal illness.
2. A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?
- A. Pulling the pinna up and back
- B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
- C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
- D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.
3. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?
- A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
- B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
- C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
- D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.
4. When preparing to assist the healthcare provider in examining a client's skin with the use of a Wood light, what action should the nurse perform?
- A. Darken the room
- B. Obtain informed consent from the client
- C. Obtain a scalpel and a slide for diagnostic evaluation
- D. Obtain medication to anesthetize the skin area before proceeding with the examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When using a Wood light during a skin examination, the room should be darkened to enhance the visibility of fluorescence. The Wood light emits long-wavelength ultraviolet light, highlighting certain skin conditions. Darkening the room aids in better visualization. Obtaining informed consent is a crucial aspect of healthcare but not directly related to using a Wood light. Obtaining a scalpel and a slide is unnecessary for a noninvasive Wood light examination. Anesthetizing the skin area is not required as the procedure is painless and noninvasive.
5. What is the threshold of dextrose concentrations that can safely be administered through a peripheral IV?
- A. Dextrose concentrations below 20% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 20% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
- B. Dextrose concentrations below 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
- C. Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
- D. Dextrose concentrations above 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations below 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dextrose concentrations below 10% are considered safe for administration through a peripheral IV, as concentrations above this threshold can lead to phlebitis, causing inflammation of the vein. Concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV to prevent vein irritation. Choice A is incorrect because concentrations above 20% are too high for a peripheral IV. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose concentrations below 5% are too low to be effective. Choice D is incorrect because the statement is reversed, suggesting that concentrations above 5% are safe, which is not true.
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