NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, where might they be best served?
- A. Rehabilitation center.
- B. Extended care facility.
- C. Hospice.
- D. Crisis intervention center.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, they are best served by Hospice. Hospice offers a more humanized alternative care for dying clients compared to hospitals, focusing on comfort and quality of life in the final stages of life. It provides a specialized interdisciplinary team of health care professionals who work together to manage client care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a rehabilitation center focuses on physical therapy, an extended care facility provides long-term care for activities of daily living, and a crisis intervention center deals with immediate psychological or social crises, none of which cater to the specific needs of clients facing the end stage of a terminal illness.
2. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?
- A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
- B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
- C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
- D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?
- A. Health promotion
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Primary prevention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.
4. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?
- A. The client is legally blind.
- B. The client has normal vision.
- C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
- D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.
5. All of the following are common reasons that nurses are reluctant to delegate except:
- A. lack of self-confidence.
- B. desire to maintain authority.
- C. confidence in subordinates.
- D. getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'confidence in subordinates.' If a delegator has confidence in their subordinates' abilities, they are more likely to delegate tasks. Reasons why nurses are reluctant to delegate include their own lack of self-confidence, the desire to maintain authority, and getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset. Therefore, having confidence in subordinates is not a common reason for reluctance to delegate.
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