Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?

• A. Scoliosis
• B. Osteoarthritis
• C. Rotator cuff lesions
• D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

3. Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. providing safety measures to prevent falls
• B. taking medications as prescribed
• C. wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome
• D. having regular health assessments

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All of the strategies listed are essential components of home care for a client with Cushing's syndrome. However, wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome is the correct answer as it can have a negative impact on body image. This choice may constantly remind the client of their condition, potentially affecting their self-image and confidence. On the contrary, providing safety measures to prevent falls (Choice A) would enhance body image by promoting safety and preventing injuries. Taking medications as prescribed (Choice B) is likely to improve body image by managing symptoms effectively. Having regular health assessments (Choice D) demonstrates good self-care and can positively contribute to body image by showing a commitment to maintaining health.

4. When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment, what aspect should be the focus?

• A. agility
• B. speed
• C. body composition
• D. risk factors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client, the primary focus should be on identifying risk factors that could predispose the client to illness or injury. Risk factors are crucial in determining an individual's overall health status and potential health outcomes. While agility, speed, and body composition are important components of physical fitness assessments, they are not the primary focus when assessing health-related physical fitness from a holistic perspective. Therefore, the correct choice is 'risk factors.'

5. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?

• A. At the level of the umbilicus
• B. Two centimeters above the umbilicus
• C. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
• D. In the pelvic cavity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.

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