Nursing Elites

1. Ms. Petty is having difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures promote sleep?

• A. exercising vigorously for 20 minutes each night beginning at 9:30 p.m.
• B. taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea
• C. watching TV nightly until midnight
• D. getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk. These measures are relaxation techniques that can help promote sleep by calming the body and mind. Exercising vigorously right before bedtime, as mentioned in choice A, can increase arousal and make it harder to fall asleep. Choice B, taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea, involves temperature changes that might not be conducive to sleep. Watching TV until midnight, as in choice C, exposes the individual to blue light and mental stimulation, both of which can disrupt the natural sleep-wake cycle.

2. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

• A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association.
• B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
• D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs. Assessment is the first step in helping the client establish a suitable diet for disease prevention. By understanding the client's current dietary habits, the nurse can tailor recommendations based on the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association. Providing a high-protein diet plan without assessing the client's current diet may not align with her cultural preferences or health goals. While educating the client on risk factors for heart disease and diabetes is essential, it is not the initial step in developing a personalized dietary plan.

3. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Xerosis
• B. Pruritus
• C. Seborrhea
• D. Actinic keratoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.

4. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

5. The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?

• A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
• B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
• C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
• D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ?350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.

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