Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following strategies should the nurse include when planning care for children of migrant workers?

• A. Delay immunizations due to acute illness.
• B. Provide parents with copies of medical records.
• C. Offer preventive services during acute illness visits.
• D. Emphasize the importance of having one primary care provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When planning care for children of migrant workers, providing parents with copies of medical records is essential. This helps ensure continuity of care, especially as migrant families may move frequently. Immunizations should not be delayed due to acute illness; preventive care, including immunizations, should be provided even during acute illness visits to ensure the child stays up to date. While it is important to offer preventive services during routine visits, it is not ideal to provide them only during acute illness visits. Emphasizing the importance of having one primary care provider is valuable in healthcare, but it may not be feasible for migrant families due to their mobility.

2. The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and the infant's temperature should be checked every 2 hours
• B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing
• C. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked
• D. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.

3. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

• A. it focuses on the health beliefs of a particular family.
• B. it highlights the impact of culture on health explanations.
• C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
• D. it is based on an educational approach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.

4. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

5. While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Vagus
• B. Facial
• C. Abducens
• D. Oculomotor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.

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