NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?
- A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
- B. Contact the healthcare provider
- C. Contact the registered nurse
- D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.
2. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes
- B. loss of reproductive ability
- C. headaches
- D. heart palpitations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.
3. What is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?
- A. immobility
- B. altered growth and development
- C. hemarthrosis
- D. altered family processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Altered Family Processes play a significant role in impacting the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia. Infants are highly perceptive of their caregivers' responses, and any changes in family dynamics due to the diagnosis can affect the infant's sense of security and trust, influencing their body image and self-perception. Immobility, while a long-term effect of hemophilia, is not an immediate impact on body image. Altered growth and development would not have manifested immediately post-diagnosis. Hemarthrosis, characterized by bleeding into joint spaces, is a hallmark of hemophilia but does not directly influence body image in the immediate aftermath of a new diagnosis.
4. Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?
- A. Rectus femoris muscle
- B. Deltoid muscle
- C. Gluteal muscle
- D. Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.
5. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?
- A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
- B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
- C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
- D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.
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