Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?

• A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Contact the registered nurse
• D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.

2. A nurse is assisting with data collection on the language development of a 9-month-old infant. Which developmental milestone does the nurse expect to note in an infant of this age?

• A. The infant babbles single consonants
• B. The infant babbles
• C. The infant says 'Mama.'
• D. The infant says 'Mama.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An 8- to 9-month-old infant can string vowels and consonants together. The first words, such as 'Mama,' 'Daddy,' 'bye-bye,' and 'baby,' begin to have meaning. A 1- to 3-month-old infant produces cooing sounds. Babbling is common in a 3- to 4-month-old. Single-consonant babbling occurs between 6 and 8 months of age. Therefore, the milestone of the infant saying 'Mama' is the most appropriate for a 9-month-old, indicating early language development. The other choices are developmentally inaccurate for a 9-month-old infant.

3. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:

• A. A reassuring sign
• B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
• C. An indication of fetal distress
• D. A nonreassuring sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.

4. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client's breath sounds. To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse places the stethoscope over which area?

• A. Major bronchi
• B. The xiphoid process
• C. The trachea and larynx
• D. The peripheral lung fields

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse should place the stethoscope over the peripheral lung fields. Vesicular breath sounds are heard in these areas where air flows through the smaller bronchioles and alveoli. Bronchovesicular breath sounds, not vesicular, are heard over the major bronchi. Bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds are heard over the trachea and larynx, not vesicular sounds. Breath sounds are not heard over the xiphoid process, making it an incorrect choice.

5. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:

• A. light or fair complexion.
• B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
• C. certain diet and foods.
• D. history of bad sunburns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.

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