Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?

• A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Contact the registered nurse
• D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.

2. A woman is receiving oxytocin to induce labor. Which action should the nurse take first upon noting the presence of late decelerations on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor?

• A. Notifying the healthcare provider
• B. Stopping the oxytocin infusion
• C. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse
• D. Increasing the intravenous (IV) rate of the nonadditive solution

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When late decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor during oxytocin infusion, it indicates decreased oxygenation to the fetus. The immediate action the nurse should take is to stop the oxytocin infusion. This helps reduce uterine activity, increase fetal oxygenation, and prevent further stress on the fetus. Stopping the oxytocin infusion is crucial to address the underlying issue causing the late decelerations. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse, increasing the IV rate of the nonadditive solution, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important actions but are secondary to stopping the oxytocin infusion in this scenario.

3. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?

• A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.

4. A sexually active married couple, discussing birth control methods with the nurse, expresses the need for a method that is convenient. Because the couple has told the nurse that family-planning goals have been met, which method of birth control does the nurse suggest?

• A. Diaphragm
• B. Sterilization
• C. Male condom
• D. Spermicide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, since the couple has indicated that their family-planning goals have been met, a permanent method of contraception like sterilization would be most suitable. Sterilization offers long-term effectiveness and convenience once the decision to stop having children is made. Options like the diaphragm, male condom, or spermicide are more suitable for temporary contraception or when the family-planning goals have not yet been achieved. Therefore, the correct answer is sterilization, as it aligns with the couple's need for a convenient and permanent birth control method.

5. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

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