Nursing Elites

1. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

• A. sprain.
• B. strain.
• C. subluxation.
• D. dislocation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.

2. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

• A. climacteric
• B. menopause
• C. perimenopause
• D. postmenopause

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.

3. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

4. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

5. The mother of an adolescent calls the clinic nurse and reports that her daughter wants to have her navel pierced. The mother asks the nurse about the dangers associated with body piercing. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. Infection always occurs when body piercing is done
• B. Hepatitis B is a concern with body piercing
• C. Body piercing is generally harmless as long as it is performed under sterile conditions
• D. It is important to discourage body piercing because of the risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Generally, body piercing is harmless if the procedure is performed under sterile conditions by a qualified person. Some complications that may occur include bleeding, infection, keloid formation, and the development of allergies to metal. It is essential to clean the area at least twice a day (more often for a tongue piercing) to prevent infection. HIV and hepatitis B infections are not typically associated with body piercing; however, they are a possibility with tattooing. Choice A is incorrect because infection does not always occur when body piercing is done. Choice B is not the best answer as hepatitis B is not commonly associated with body piercing. Choice D is incorrect because the risk of contracting HIV is not a significant concern with body piercing if performed under sterile conditions.

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