Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
• B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
• C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
• D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.

2. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to perform the Romberg test. After describing the test to the client, the nurse tells the client that it will help reveal which disorder?

• A. Loss of hearing acuity
• B. A problem with balance
• C. A problem with distant hearing
• D. A problem discriminating high-pitched and low-pitched sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Romberg test is a balance assessment that evaluates cerebellar function. During the test, the client stands with feet together and eyes closed, aiming to maintain balance for about 20 seconds. This test helps identify issues related to balance and proprioception, not hearing acuity or sound discrimination. Choices C and D are incorrect as the Romberg test focuses on balance, not distant hearing or sound discrimination.

3. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

4. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?

• A. vitamin B12 deficiency
• B. chronic hypoglycemia
• C. vitamin D deficiency
• D. increased tolerance to Metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.

5. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

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