NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
- A. nausea and vomiting
- B. itching
- C. urinary retention
- D. somnolence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.
2. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?
- A. vitiligo
- B. erythema
- C. cyanosis
- D. chloasma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.
3. The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Ask the healthcare provider about referring the client to a neurological specialist.
- B. Obtain a prescription for a muscle relaxant.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Document the findings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.
4. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:
- A. Gravida 2, para 6
- B. Gravida 6, para 2
- C. Gravida 3, para 6
- D. Gravida 2, para 2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.
5. When a 16-year-old girl visits the women's health clinic to obtain information about birth control because she is sexually active and wants to avoid pregnancy, what should the nurse do first when interviewing the client?
- A. Assess the client's knowledge of available birth control methods.
- B. Inform the client that birth control methods can be discussed without the client's boyfriend present.
- C. Tell the client that for her age and lifestyle, birth control pills would be one of the methods of contraception.
- D. Give the client written material about various birth control methods and ask her to read them and to call if she has any questions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client seeks information about birth control, it is essential for the nurse to first assess the client's existing knowledge on the subject. This enables the nurse to provide tailored information that complements what the client already knows, facilitating better understanding and decision-making. Providing written material is a helpful educational tool but should not be the first intervention. Offering specific advice on birth control methods based on age and lifestyle limits the client's autonomy and decision-making process. Mentioning the client's boyfriend as a requirement for discussing birth control is inappropriate and nontherapeutic, as the client should be able to seek information independently.
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