Nursing Elites

1. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

• A. The clothing may be potential evidence with legal implications.
• B. Such care facilitates the preservation of potential evidence.
• C. The clothing of a trauma victim can be used for further investigation.
• D. Such care maintains the integrity of the clothing for forensic analysis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of trauma, the clothing of a client can hold crucial evidence that may have legal implications. It is essential for the nurse to avoid cutting through or disrupting any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing to preserve this potential evidence. The correct answer highlights the legal importance of preserving the clothing for potential legal implications. Choice B is related but does not emphasize the legal aspect explicitly. Choice C is vague in mentioning further investigation without specifying the legal significance. Choice D focuses more on forensic analysis rather than the legal implications of preserving the clothing.

2. A patient who has delivered an 8.2 lb. baby boy 3 days ago via c-section, reports white patches on her breast that aren't going away. Which of the following medications may be necessary?

• A. Nystatin
• B. Atropine
• C. Amoxil
• D. Lortab

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing thrush, a fungal infection, which can present as white patches on the breast that persist. Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat thrush. Therefore, the correct answer is Nystatin. Atropine is not indicated for this condition and is used for different purposes. Amoxil is an antibiotic and would not be effective against a fungal infection like thrush. Lortab is a pain medication and is not appropriate for treating thrush.

3. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

4. When preparing a client for platelet pheresis in the blood bank, which information is most significant to obtain during the history assessment?

• A. Allergies to shellfish
• B. Date of last platelet donation
• C. Time of last oral intake
• D. Blood type

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant information to gather when a client is scheduled for platelet pheresis is the date of their last platelet donation. Platelet donors can typically have their platelets apheresed as frequently as every 14 days. Knowing the date of the last donation helps ensure the client is eligible for the procedure without risking any adverse effects from frequent donations. Allergies to shellfish may be important for other procedures where anticoagulants containing heparin are used, but it is not directly related to platelet pheresis. The time of the last oral intake is more crucial for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Blood type is significant for blood transfusions but is not the primary concern for platelet pheresis.

5. A nurse has been ordered to set up Buck's traction on a patient's lower extremity due to a femur fracture. Which of the following applies to Buck's traction?

• A. A weight greater than 10 lbs. should be used.
• B. The line of pull is upward at an angle.
• C. The line of pull is straight
• D. A weight greater than 20 lbs. should be used.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the line of pull is straight for Buck's traction. This type of traction is applied to maintain alignment and immobilization of fractures, typically involving the lower extremities. A straight line of pull helps to provide the necessary countertraction to keep the fractured bone in proper alignment. Choices A and D are incorrect because Buck's traction commonly uses a weight range between 5-10 lbs, and using a weight greater than 10 or 20 lbs would not be appropriate or safe. Choice B is incorrect as well since the line of pull for Buck's traction is straight, not upward at an angle.

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