a 93 year old female with a history of alzheimers disease gets admitted to an alzheimers unit the patient has exhibited signs of increased confusion a
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A 93-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's Disease gets admitted to an Alzheimer's unit. The patient has exhibited signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait. Moreover, the patient is refusing to use a w/c. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 93-year-old female with Alzheimer's Disease exhibiting signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait, recommending family members to bring pictures to the patient's room is the most appropriate course of action. Visual stimulation in the form of pictures may help decrease signs of confusion and provide comfort to the patient. Option A is incorrect as isolating the patient in her room at all times may worsen her condition by further limiting stimulation and interaction. Option C is incorrect as speech therapy may not directly address the current issues of confusion and gait instability. Option D is incorrect as pushing a wheelchair may not be safe for the patient if she is refusing to use it, potentially leading to falls or further distress.

2. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102�F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.

3. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by an abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy include sudden sharp, stabbing pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain can be exacerbated by deep breathing. In contrast, pleural effusion is characterized by fluid accumulation in the pleural space, not sharp pain. Atelectasis involves collapse or closure of a lung leading to reduced gas exchange, but it does not typically present with sharp, stabbing pain. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs but does not typically manifest with sudden sharp pain exacerbated by deep breathing.

4. A client had a Caesarean delivery and is postpartum day 1. She asks for pain medication when the nurse enters the room to do her shift assessment. The client states that her pain level is an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. What should be the nurse's priority of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain management is a priority, so the nurse should immediately provide pain medication. However, the nurse should conduct a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure that a complication, such as hemorrhage, hasn't caused the increased pain. A complete assessment can wait until the pain subsides. Controlling pain will enable the client to move, eliminating other potential complications of delivery and facilitating bonding with the infant. Relaxation techniques can act as an adjunct therapy but by themselves are not usually effective for pain management during the early post-Caesarean period.

5. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a client with insomnia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Ineffective breathing pattern.' When a client presents with insomnia, assessing for underlying causes is crucial. Sleep apnea, an airway issue, may be a contributing factor to the client's insomnia, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the priority. 'Disturbed sensory perception' focuses on alterations in touch, taste, or vision, which are not directly related to insomnia. 'Ineffective coping' addresses a client's inability to manage stress, which, although important, is not the priority in this case. 'Sleep deprivation' is a consequence of insomnia rather than a primary nursing diagnosis.

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