NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A person who had a left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis is being instructed by a nurse to use a quad cane. Which of the following is the most appropriate gait sequence?
- A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
- B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
- C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
- D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct gait sequence for a person with left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis using a quad cane is to place the cane in the patient's strong upper extremity, which is the left upper extremity in this case. The correct sequence should be right lower extremity followed by left upper extremity, as this pattern mimics a normal gait pattern. Therefore, Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the proper gait sequence for this specific patient's condition. The cane should be placed in the strong upper extremity, and the affected lower extremity should move first to provide stability and support, which is essential in this situation.
2. While assessing a patient who has undergone a recent CABG, the nurse notices a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Recommend a dermatological consult to the physician.
- B. Note the location of the mole and contact the physician via telephone.
- C. Note the location of the mole and follow-up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call.
- D. Remove the mole with a sharp debridement technique, following approval from the charge nurse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should note the location of the mole and follow up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call. This action is appropriate because a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color raises concern for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Recommending a dermatological consult (Choice A) might delay the evaluation and management of the mole. Contacting the physician via telephone (Choice B) may not provide a documented record of the observation. Removing the mole without proper evaluation (Choice D) could be dangerous and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.
3. What is the best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. platelet count
- B. prothrombin time (PT)
- C. partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. D-dimer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the D-dimer test. In DIC, numerous small clots form throughout the body and are rapidly broken down. D-dimer measures a specific fibrin split product and is the most specific test for DIC. Platelet count (Choice A) is decreased in DIC due to consumption, but it is not specific for diagnosing DIC. Prothrombin time (PT - Choice B) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT - Choice C) are both elevated in DIC because clotting factors have been used up, but they are not specific for DIC as they can be elevated in other conditions as well.
4. Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackie's condition?
- A. her response to hospitalization
- B. the presence of a macular rash on her trunk
- C. her cardiac status
- D. the presence of polyarthritis and joint pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring Jackie's cardiac status is of the highest priority in a patient with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can lead to permanent cardiac damage, making it crucial to closely monitor the heart. Assessing for signs of carditis, such as murmurs or other cardiac symptoms, is essential. The second priority is evaluating joint symptoms for the presence of polyarthritis and pain, which are common manifestations of rheumatic fever. While assessing Jackie's response to hospitalization is important for her emotional well-being, it is not the highest priority. The presence of a macular rash, although relevant, is not as high a priority as monitoring cardiac status or assessing joint symptoms.
5. A client had a colostomy done one day ago. Which of the following is an abnormal finding when assessing the stoma?
- A. mild edema
- B. minimal bleeding
- C. rose color
- D. dark red color
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A dark red color is an abnormal finding when assessing the stoma as it indicates inadequate blood supply, possibly due to ischemia. Mild edema, minimal bleeding, and a rose color are expected findings one day post colostomy surgery. Mild edema can be present due to tissue trauma and inflammation, minimal bleeding can occur initially, and a healthy stoma typically appears pink to red, known as a rose color, indicating good blood supply and tissue perfusion. Therefore, the dark red color is the abnormal finding in this scenario.
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