Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager asks a nurse to work overtime because of a short-staffing problem. The nurse has made plans to do Christmas shopping after work and does not want to work overtime. What is the most assertive response by the nurse to her nurse manager?

• A. "I'm not working overtime today."
• B. "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime."
• C. "You know how I hate to work overtime."
• D. "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse should assertively communicate her unavailability for overtime without being confrontational. Option A, "I'm not working overtime today," is too blunt and may come across as rude. Option C, "You know how I hate to work overtime," is not assertive but rather passive-aggressive. Option D, "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this," is a passive-aggressive response as it implies compliance while expressing discontent. Option B, "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime," is the most appropriate response as it clearly states the nurse's unavailability without unnecessary aggression.

2. What is a true statement about post-discharge follow-up?

• A. The nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions.
• B. If the client seems stable, they likely do not need a follow-up visit.
• C. The physician is responsible for ensuring the client has their prescriptions upon discharge.
• D. If the client has questions, the nurse should address them before discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that the nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions. This is crucial to promote continuity of care and prevent adverse events. The responsibility of educating the client falls on the nurse, not assuming stability without a follow-up visit. While the physician may prescribe medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client has them before discharge. Instructing the client to bring up questions at a follow-up appointment is not ideal; all questions should be addressed before discharge to ensure the client's understanding and compliance.

3. What should be included in the assessment of a client with a cast?

• A. capillary refill, warm toes, no discomfort.
• B. posterior tibial pulses, warm toes.
• C. moist skin essential, pain threshold.
• D. discomfort of the metacarpals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client with a cast, it is crucial to check for capillary refill to ensure adequate circulation. Warm toes indicate good circulation, while the absence of discomfort suggests the cast is not causing any pain or undue pressure on the client. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the essential components of assessing a client with a cast.

4. The nurse is educating a teenage female about preventing the transmission of genital herpes. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. "Do not sit on toilet seats without protection."?
• B. "Oral sex can transmit the virus."?
• C. "This infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when you do not feel ill."?
• D. "Try to drink plenty of fluids after sex to flush the reproductive tract."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Genital herpes can be transmitted through oral, genital, and anal sex. It is crucial to educate the patient that the infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when asymptomatic to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as sitting on toilet seats without protection does not transmit genital herpes. Choice B is incorrect because oral sex can transmit the virus. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking fluids after sex does not prevent the transmission of genital herpes.

5. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. CPK-BB
• B. CPK-MM
• C. CPK-MB
• D. CPK-MI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

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