NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. What are the hazards of improper splinting?
- A. Aggravation of a bone or joint injury
- B. Reduced distal circulation
- C. Delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hazards of improper splinting can lead to the aggravation of a bone or joint injury, reduced distal circulation, and delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the hazards mentioned. Option A is incorrect because it only addresses one aspect of the hazards. Option B is incorrect as it does not cover all the hazards associated with improper splinting. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on only one hazard and does not account for the others.
2. When are standard walkers typically used?
- A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
- B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
- C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
- D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.
3. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?
- A. Place extra padding under the mother to absorb blood from the delivery.
- B. Cut the umbilical cord using sterile scissors.
- C. Suction the baby's mouth and nose.
- D. Wrap the baby in a clean blanket to preserve warmth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate action the nurse should take after the baby delivers is to suction the baby's mouth and nose to ensure the infant can breathe properly. This helps clear any potential obstructions and establish a clear airway. Cutting the umbilical cord (Choice B) and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket (Choice D) are important steps but should come after ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Placing extra padding under the mother (Choice A) is not a priority in this emergency situation as the focus should be on the baby's immediate needs for breathing and airway clearance.
4. A client who has undergone a total hip replacement is told that she will need to go to an extended care rehabilitation facility for therapy before going home. Which member of the healthcare team should the nurse ask to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility?
- A. Physical therapist
- B. Occupational therapist
- C. Clergy
- D. Social worker
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate member of the healthcare team to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility is the social worker. Social workers are trained to provide counseling services, emotional support, arrange placements in care facilities, and locate financial resources for clients. While clergy provide spiritual support and guidance, physical therapists assist in physical treatments, and occupational therapists help with activities of daily living, the social worker is best suited to address the client's needs related to discharge planning and transition. Therefore, the correct answer is the social worker.
5. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
- A. coma
- B. edema
- C. hypoxia
- D. polyuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access