hazards of improper splinting include

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. What are the hazards of improper splinting?

A. Aggravation of a bone or joint injury
B. Reduced distal circulation
C. Delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury
D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hazards of improper splinting can lead to the aggravation of a bone or joint injury, reduced distal circulation, and delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the hazards mentioned. Option A is incorrect because it only addresses one aspect of the hazards. Option B is incorrect as it does not cover all the hazards associated with improper splinting. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on only one hazard and does not account for the others.

2. To remove hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?

A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward
B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion
C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure
D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, the nurse should ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens. This approach helps prevent scratching the cornea. Gently maneuvering the upper and lower eyelids assists in loosening the lens for easy removal. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye, grasping the lens, or wearing sterile gloves are not recommended methods for removing hard contact lenses. It is crucial to handle the situation delicately to avoid causing harm or discomfort to the client.

3. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:

A. the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.
B. those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.
C. those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.
D. those tasks that can be performed at any time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.

4. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?

A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.

5. A client being treated for sickle cell disease has an order for pain medication. Morphine was ordered, but the nurse is having difficulty deciphering the dose. The nurse should ____.

A. ask the attending physician to clarify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
B. call the charge nurse to inform the attending physician and verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
C. call the attending physician to verbally verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
D. refrain from administering the medication until the charge nurse can assist in determining the correct dosage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when a nurse encounters difficulties in deciphering an order, the appropriate action is to contact the attending physician directly to clarify and verify the medication, dose, route, and frequency. It is crucial for the nurse to have a clear understanding of the order before administering any medication to ensure patient safety and proper treatment. Option A is incorrect as it suggests asking the attending physician to clarify without specifying the urgency of the situation. Option B involves an unnecessary additional step by first contacting the charge nurse before reaching out to the attending physician, potentially delaying the clarification process. Option D is incorrect as it advises refraining from administering the medication, which may not be necessary if the correct dosage can be promptly verified by contacting the attending physician.