hazards of improper splinting include
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. What are the hazards of improper splinting?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hazards of improper splinting can lead to the aggravation of a bone or joint injury, reduced distal circulation, and delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the hazards mentioned. Option A is incorrect because it only addresses one aspect of the hazards. Option B is incorrect as it does not cover all the hazards associated with improper splinting. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on only one hazard and does not account for the others.

2. After assigning tasks, what is the nurse's primary responsibility?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's primary responsibility after assigning tasks is to follow up with each staff member regarding the task's performance and outcomes. This ensures accountability and quality care delivery. Allowing staff members to make judgments independently can compromise patient safety if they lack the necessary knowledge or experience. While documenting task completion is important, it should follow the follow-up to assess outcomes. Assigning incomplete tasks to the next shift is not ideal as it may result in unmet patient needs and increased workload for the next shift.

3. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sprain is the correct term for the excessive stretching of a ligament, which is what happens when a ligament is pulled. A strain involves muscle tissue. Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation, and dislocation is a complete displacement of bones in a joint. In this case, since it's a pulled ligament, the most appropriate term is a sprain.

4. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.

5. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

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