Nursing Elites

1. A client with a pleural drainage system to suction has gentle bubbling of the water seal. What should the nurse do?

• A. Notify the physician.
• B. Clamp the chest tube.
• C. Replace the system.
• D. Document the finding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle bubbling is a normal finding for a client with a pleural drainage system to suction, so it simply needs to be documented for monitoring purposes. If the bubbling becomes vigorous, it could indicate a leak, which would then require further investigation by the nurse. Therefore, the correct action at this point is to document the finding. Notifying the physician is not necessary for gentle bubbling as it is expected. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the system is inappropriate and could potentially harm the client as there is no indication for such actions based on the scenario provided.

2. While preparing a client for a bronchoscopy, a nurse notes that the client is wearing a gold necklace. What should the nurse do to safeguard the client's necklace?

• A. Ask the client for permission to lock the necklace in the hospital safe
• B. Ask the client to remove the necklace and place it in the top drawer of the bedside table
• C. Ask the client whether the necklace is gold
• D. Ask the client to sign a release to free the hospital of responsibility if the necklace is damaged or lost during the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has valuables such as jewelry, the nurse should ensure their safekeeping. It is appropriate for the nurse to ask the client for permission to lock the necklace in the hospital safe to prevent loss or damage. This option prioritizes the security of the necklace while allowing the client to make an informed decision. Asking the client to sign a release form does not guarantee the necklace's safety; it only releases the hospital from liability. Placing the necklace in a bedside table drawer does not provide adequate security as it is not as secure as a hospital safe. Inquiring whether the necklace is gold is irrelevant to safeguarding the jewelry during the procedure, as the primary concern is its safekeeping.

3. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

4. When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?

• A. current medications
• B. ambulation abilities
• C. family history
• D. hydration status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

5. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

• A. delta sleep
• B. slow brain waves
• C. pneumonia
• D. circadian rhythm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

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