Nursing Elites

1. Mrs. Peterson complains of difficulty falling asleep, awakening earlier than desired, and not feeling rested. She attributes these problems to leg pain that is secondary to her arthritis. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for her?

• A. Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain)
• B. Fatigue (related to leg pain)
• C. Knowledge Deficit (regarding sleep hygiene measures)
• D. Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for Mrs. Peterson is 'Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain).' Mrs. Peterson's sleep issues are directly linked to her chronic leg pain, which is a result of her arthritis. This nursing diagnosis addresses the primary cause of her sleep disturbances and allows for interventions that focus on managing the pain to improve her sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A correctly identifies the relationship between sleep disturbances and chronic leg pain, addressing the root cause. Choice B is incorrect as it only focuses on fatigue and does not encompass the broader sleep issues. Choice C is not relevant as there is no indication that Mrs. Peterson lacks knowledge about sleep hygiene measures.

2. A nurse enters a client's room to administer a medication that has been prescribed by the health care provider. The client asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. 'I know that it's for fluid buildup, and I think you've taken it before.''
• B. 'It's called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we'll need to increase the potassium in your diet.''
• C. 'It's to help get rid of the swelling in your feet.''
• D. ''You need to discuss this medication with your health care provider.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Choice B is the correct answer as it includes the medication name, its purpose (promoting urination and eliminating excess fluid), and a potential side effect (alteration in electrolyte levels) with a plan for managing it (increasing potassium in the diet). This response demonstrates thorough and complete information. Choice A provides some information but lacks details on potential side effects and dietary adjustments. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific details about the medication. Choice D deflects the client's question and does not fulfill the client's right to information.

3. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?

• A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
• B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
• C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
• D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.

4. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

• A. BUN and creatinine.
• B. creatinine and calcium.
• C. Hgb and Hct.
• D. BUN and CFT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

5. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

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