Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.'
• B. 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.'
• C. 'Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours before the examination.'
• D. 'If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the discharge for inspection.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.

2. Which of these medications is least likely to cause tinnitus?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Lasix
• C. Gentamicin
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluoxetine. Among the options provided, Fluoxetine is the medication least likely to cause tinnitus. Gentamicin, Lasix, and Aspirin are known ototoxic medications that have a potential side effect of causing tinnitus, a ringing in the ear. Gentamicin is an antibiotic, Lasix is a diuretic, and Aspirin is a common pain reliever that can lead to tinnitus. In contrast, Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) primarily used as an antidepressant, and it has a lower risk of causing tinnitus compared to the other options.

3. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part water and one part concentrate.
• D. When using powdered formula, mix two parts water and one part powder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is essential for parents to be cautious when warming bottles in a microwave oven to prevent superheating of the milk. Choosing the defrost setting and checking the formula temperature before giving it to the baby helps avoid burns. Discarding partially used bottles after 24 hours when refrigerating formula is crucial as it reduces the risk of harmful bacterial growth. Mixing formula concentrate with water in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate to one part water ensures proper dilution of the formula. On the other hand, powdered formula should be mixed following the package instructions, typically using two parts water to one part powder. This accurate mixing ratio provides the necessary balance of nutrients for the baby. Adding fresh formula to partially used bottles can introduce pathogens that may harm the infant, underscoring the importance of discarding partially used bottles and preparing formula correctly. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the safe and proper ways to feed a newborn effectively.

4. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

5. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.

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