Nursing Elites

1. After undergoing gastric resection, which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

• A. a high-protein meal
• B. a high-fat meal
• C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
• D. a high-carbohydrate meal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. In contrast, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. While a large meal can slow down gastric emptying, the specific nutrient content, such as high carbohydrates, plays a significant role in promoting rapid emptying. Therefore, a high-carbohydrate meal is the correct choice as it is most likely to lead to rapid gastric emptying compared to the other options.

2. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?

• A. The cervix is pink.
• B. The cervix is midline.
• C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
• D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.

4. When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, which of the following actions is most effective?

• A. asking the child to draw their family doing something
• B. offering specific suggestions of what to include in the drawing
• C. discouraging the child from talking about the drawing
• D. noting the omission of any family members

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, noting the omission of any family members is an effective action. It is crucial to observe and analyze all aspects of the drawing, including what is missing. This can provide valuable insights into the child's perception and relationships within the family. Asking the child to draw their family doing something (Choice A) is more related to initial instruction rather than evaluation. Offering specific suggestions (Choice B) can influence the child's drawing and should be avoided to maintain the authenticity of the representation. Discouraging the child from talking about the drawing (Choice C) is counterproductive as verbal expression can provide additional context and understanding.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection of the peripheral vascular system performs the Allen test. The nurse understands that this test is used to determine the patency of which blood vessel(s)?

• A. Capillaries
• B. Pedal pulses
• C. Femoral arteries
• D. Radial and ulnar arteries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse performs the Allen test to determine the patency of the radial and ulnar arteries. During the test, the nurse applies pressure over the client's ulnar and radial arteries simultaneously. The client is then asked to open and close the hand repeatedly, causing the hand to blanch. Subsequently, the nurse releases pressure from the ulnar artery while compressing the radial artery and checks the color of the extremity distal to the pressure point. If pinkness fails to return within 6 seconds, it indicates that the ulnar artery is insufficient, suggesting that the radial artery should not be used for obtaining a blood specimen. Choice A (Capillaries) is incorrect as the Allen test assesses the patency of larger arteries, not capillaries. Choice B (Pedal pulses) is incorrect as the Allen test specifically evaluates the radial and ulnar arteries, not the pedal pulses in the foot. Choice C (Femoral arteries) is incorrect as the Allen test focuses on the radial and ulnar arteries in the hand, not the femoral arteries in the leg.

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