NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. When preparing to assist the healthcare provider in examining a client's skin with the use of a Wood light, what action should the nurse perform?
- A. Darken the room
- B. Obtain informed consent from the client
- C. Obtain a scalpel and a slide for diagnostic evaluation
- D. Obtain medication to anesthetize the skin area before proceeding with the examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When using a Wood light during a skin examination, the room should be darkened to enhance the visibility of fluorescence. The Wood light emits long-wavelength ultraviolet light, highlighting certain skin conditions. Darkening the room aids in better visualization. Obtaining informed consent is a crucial aspect of healthcare but not directly related to using a Wood light. Obtaining a scalpel and a slide is unnecessary for a noninvasive Wood light examination. Anesthetizing the skin area is not required as the procedure is painless and noninvasive.
2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.
3. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding skin and peripheral vascular findings on a client in later adulthood. Which observation would the nurse expect to note as an age-related finding?
- A. Thin, ridged toenails
- B. Thick skin on the lower legs
- C. Loss of hair on the lower legs
- D. Bounding dorsalis pedis pulse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In later adulthood, age-related findings include trophic changes associated with arterial insufficiency, such as thin, shiny skin; thin, ridged toenails; and loss of hair on the lower legs. These changes occur normally with aging. Thick skin on the lower legs would not be an expected age-related finding as it typically indicates chronic venous insufficiency. A bounding dorsalis pedis pulse is not typical in later adulthood and may indicate arterial insufficiency, which is not an age-related finding.
4. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.
5. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:
- A. sprain.
- B. strain.
- C. subluxation.
- D. dislocation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.
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