Nursing Elites

1. A nurse preparing to assist with data collection of the abdomen asks the client to void and then assists the client into a supine position. Which primary finding does the nurse expect to note on percussing all four quadrants of the abdominal cavity?

• A. Dullness
• B. Tympany
• C. Borborygmus
• D. Hyperresonance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse expects to primarily note tympany when percussing the abdomen. Tympany should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the client is in a supine position. Dullness is usually heard over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass. Borborygmus, which refers to hyperperistalsis, is typically heard on auscultation, not percussion. Hyperresonance is present with gaseous distention, not the typical finding when percussing all four quadrants of the abdomen.

2. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?

• A. Loud music
• B. Use of power tools
• C. Occupational noise
• D. Exposure to cigarette smoke

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.

3. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

4. The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?

• A. "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after each puff."?
• B. "I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water."?
• C. "I will wait at least one minute between each puff."?
• D. "I will take this medication daily even if I am not having symptoms."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.

5. During an interview, what action should a nurse conducting an interview with a client take to collect subjective data?

• A. Takes minimal notes to avoid impeding observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors
• B. Takes a great deal of notes to allow the client to continue at his or her own pace as the nurse records what he or she is saying
• C. Takes notes because this allows the nurse to break eye contact with the client, which may increase the client's level of comfort
• D. Takes notes to allow the nurse to shift attention away from the client, which may make the nurse more comfortable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an interview, a nurse should minimize note-taking to focus on the client and not impede the conversation. Taking minimal notes allows the nurse to effectively observe the client's nonverbal behaviors, which provide valuable subjective data. Option B, taking many notes, is incorrect as it can distract the nurse from the client's cues and hinder interaction. Option C, taking notes to break eye contact, is incorrect as it may decrease the client's comfort level and disrupt communication. Option D, taking notes to shift attention away from the client, is incorrect as it diminishes the client's importance and may make them uncomfortable during sensitive discussions. Therefore, the correct approach is for the nurse to take minimal notes, ensuring effective observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors while collecting subjective data.

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