NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?
- A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
- B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
- C. Cleansing breaths
- D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction
Correct answer: Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.
2. When teaching clients with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia nearing discharge from a residential care facility, what is an essential topic to include?
- A. pathophysiology of the disease and expected symptoms.
- B. how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse.
- C. the need to take extra medication when feeling stressed.
- D. the importance of contact with follow-up care daily.
Correct answer: how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse.
Rationale: When educating clients with Schizophrenia nearing discharge, it is crucial to focus on teaching them how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse. Clients are usually aware of these symptoms, such as feeling anxious and overwhelmed, before the onset of psychosis. This early stage is vital for intervention, which involves finding a safe environment, seeking help, avoiding stressors, and reducing stimuli. Understanding and managing relapse symptoms empower clients to take proactive steps in their care. Choices A and C are not as immediate and practical as recognizing symptoms of relapse for client safety and well-being. While contact with follow-up care is important, it is not as urgent and specific as knowing how to manage relapse symptoms for immediate intervention.
3. A client with sickle cell disease is worried about passing the disease on to children. Which of the following statements by the PN is most appropriate for this client?
- A. “You should discuss the inheritance risk with your physician.”
- B. “Sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children.”
- C. “Sickle cell disease is genetically based and is not passed on to children.”
- D. “Sickle cell disease is caused by an infection and cannot be passed on to children.”
Correct answer: “Sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children.”
Rationale: A client with sickle cell disease has a genetic condition that can be passed on to their offspring. The most appropriate statement for the PN to provide is to acknowledge this fact and inform the client that sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children. This empowers the client with accurate information. Choice A has been refined to emphasize discussing the inheritance risk, making it a better option than the vague original choice. Choices C and D provide incorrect information. Sickle cell disease is indeed genetically based and can be inherited.
4. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:
- A. Peaked P wave
- B. Elevated ST segment
- C. Inverted T wave
- D. Prolonged QT interval
Correct answer: Prolonged QT interval
Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.
5. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:
- A. the client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
- B. red blood cells are affected first.
- C. folic acid levels are normal.
- D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.
Correct answer: the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.
Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.
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