Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at an outpatient clinic is returning phone calls that have been made to the clinic. Which of the following calls should have the highest priority for medical intervention?

• A. A home health patient reports, "I am starting to have a breakdown of my heels."?
• B. A patient that received an upper extremity cast yesterday reports, "I can't feel my fingers in my right hand today."?
• C. A young female reports, 'I think I sprained my ankle about 2 weeks ago.'
• D. A middle-aged patient reports, 'My knee is still hurting from the TKR.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient who received an upper extremity cast yesterday and reports not being able to feel their fingers in the right hand. This situation indicates a potential neurovascular issue that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options are of lesser priority: A - Breakdown of the heels, while concerning, is not an acute issue that necessitates immediate intervention. C - An ankle sprain that occurred two weeks ago is now subacute and unlikely to be an urgent medical concern. D - Pain in the knee following a total knee replacement (TKR) is common in the early postoperative period and is not unexpected.

2. A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?

• A. Lower extremity edema
• B. Sensory changes in the upper extremities
• C. Increased occurrence of fractures
• D. Decreased peripheral blood flow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.

3. A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, 'How soon will I see improvement?' The nurse's best response is:

• A. "That varies from client to client."?
• B. "You should discuss that with your physician."?
• C. "You should notice a difference in a few days."?
• D. "It might take several weeks before you notice improvement."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case of Parkinson's disease, improvement in symptoms may take several weeks of therapy to become noticeable. Therefore, the correct answer is to inform the client that it might take several weeks before they notice improvement. Choice A acknowledges individual variability but does not provide a specific timeframe, making it less reassuring. Choice B suggests deferring the question to the physician, which is not the most supportive response. Choice C is incorrect because improvement in Parkinson's disease symptoms typically does not occur within a few days.

4. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

• A. is given after the D10W is finished.
• B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
• C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
• D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

5. Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?

• A. prednisone (Colisone)
• B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• C. indomethacin (Indocin)
• D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.

Similar Questions