Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

2. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?

• A. perineal shave
• B. enema
• C. urine specimen collection
• D. blood specimen collection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.

3. A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

• A. Administer O2.
• B. Turn the client on her left side.
• C. Notify the physician.
• D. No action is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: This scenario describes early deceleration due to head compression, which is a benign finding in labor. Early decelerations mirror the contractions and do not require any intervention as they are considered a normal response to fetal head compression. The fetal heart rate returns to baseline at the end of the contraction. In this case, the correct action is no action at the moment. Close monitoring of the mother and baby is essential, but immediate intervention is not required. Administering O2 (Choice A) or turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not indicated for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is unnecessary for this type of deceleration.

4. The client is undergoing an induction for fetal demise at 34 weeks. Immediately after delivery, the mother asks to see the infant. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Bring the swaddled fetus to the mother
• B. Explain that the cause of death must be determined before she can see the baby
• C. Ask her if she is sure she wants to see the baby
• D. Tell her it would be better to wait until she is in her room before she sees the baby

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should bring the swaddled fetus to the mother as the best response. Allowing the mother to see the infant immediately after delivery is crucial for her grieving process. It provides her with the opportunity to bond, say goodbye, and start the grieving process. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the mother's request to see the baby can hinder her grieving process and prolong her suffering. Choice C is inappropriate as it questions the mother's decision at a sensitive time, potentially causing distress. Choice D is also not the best response as it suggests waiting, which may not be in the mother's best interest at that moment, as she needs immediate support and closure.

5. The client develops a tension pneumothorax. Assessment is expected to reveal?

• A. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia
• B. Productive cough with yellow mucus
• C. Tracheal deviation and dyspnea
• D. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates to the unaffected side due to increased pressure in the affected pleural space, causing respiratory distress. Dyspnea is a hallmark symptom as the lung on the affected side collapses, leading to difficulty in breathing. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia (Choice A) are not typical findings of tension pneumothorax. Productive cough with yellow mucus (Choice B) is more suggestive of respiratory infections rather than a tension pneumothorax. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness (Choice D) is not characteristic of tension pneumothorax presentation.

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