NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
2. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.
3. Which dietary consideration is most important for the nurse to teach to a client with hypothyroidism?
- A. Increase carbohydrate intake
- B. Increase fluid intake
- C. Avoid shellfish
- D. Increase fiber
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Increase fiber.' In hypothyroidism, clients often experience constipation due to decreased metabolic rate. Increasing fiber in the diet can help alleviate constipation. Choice A, 'Increase carbohydrate intake,' is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase carbohydrate intake in hypothyroidism. Choice B, 'Increase fluid intake,' is not directly related to managing hypothyroidism, although adequate hydration is generally important for overall health. Choice C, 'Avoid shellfish,' is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to its iodine content, not hypothyroidism.
4. A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:
- A. no relation to the blood transfusion.
- B. graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
- C. myelosuppression.
- D. an allergic reaction to a recent medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of fever, liver abnormalities, rash, and diarrhea in an immunocompromised client a month after a blood transfusion are indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can manifest within a month of the transfusion. While choices 1 and 4 are plausible, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the possibility of GVHD in immunocompromised transfusion recipients due to the significant risk. Myelosuppression, choice C, typically presents with decreased blood cell counts and is not consistent with the symptoms described. An allergic reaction to medication, choice D, would present with different manifestations such as itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, which are not described in the scenario.
5. While undergoing hemodialysis, the client becomes restless and tells the nurse he has a headache and feels nauseous. Which of the following complications does the nurse suspect?
- A. Infection.
- B. Disequilibrium syndrome.
- C. Air embolus.
- D. Infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client undergoing hemodialysis is experiencing symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. These symptoms are indicative of an air embolus, a serious complication that can occur during hemodialysis. Air embolus happens when air enters the bloodstream and can lead to symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. It is crucial for the nurse to suspect and address this complication promptly to prevent further harm to the client. Choices A and D (Infection) are less likely in this case, as the symptoms presented are more suggestive of an air embolus rather than an infection. Choice B (Disequilibrium syndrome) is also less likely as the symptoms described are not typical of this syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Air embolus.
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