NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
2. A 22-year-old patient in a mental health lock-down unit under suicide watch appears happy about being discharged. Which of the following is probably happening?
- A. The patient is excited about being around family again.
- B. The patient's suicide plan has probably progressed.
- C. The patient's plans for the future have been clarified.
- D. The patient's mood is improving.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is concerning that a patient under suicide watch is happy about being discharged as it may indicate that the patient's suicide plan has advanced. This change in behavior should be taken seriously as it can signal an increased risk of self-harm. Choices A, C, and D are less likely as the patient's happiness about discharge in this context is more indicative of a worsening situation rather than positive outcomes like being around family, clarifying future plans, or improving mood.
3. A client delivered a term male infant four hours ago. The infant was stillborn. Which room assignment would be most appropriate for this client?
- A. Request a private room on the GYN floor
- B. Assign her to a private room on the postpartum unit
- C. Discharge her home as soon as her condition is stable
- D. Room her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate room assignment for the client who delivered a stillborn infant would be to request a private room on the GYN floor. This client needs privacy to grieve, and having a private space allows for family members to offer support. Placing her in a GYN unit ensures that she is away from the maternity unit's sights and sounds, which could be painful reminders for her. Assigning her to a postpartum unit may cause distress due to the presence of other mothers and newborns. Discharging her home too early may not allow her sufficient time for emotional and physical recovery. Rooming her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss may not provide the necessary privacy and space she needs for her emotional well-being.
4. When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:
- A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
- B. an increase in protein in the diet.
- C. vitamins A and C.
- D. an increase in calcium in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.
5. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.
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