NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Under what circumstances is the legal right to confidentiality of client information waived?
- A. When a court system subpoenas information.
- B. When a family member requests health care information of a client.
- C. When a living will takes effect.
- D. When the client is declared incompetent by the legal system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when a court system subpoenas information. This occurs when information is required for legal proceedings to occur, such as through summonses, court orders, or litigation information necessary for the court. Subpoenas are legal orders that compel the disclosure of information. The other choices do not inherently waive the legal right to confidentiality. A family member's request for health care information would typically require the client's consent or fall under specific legal exceptions. A living will dictates end-of-life care preferences but does not necessarily waive confidentiality. Lastly, the declaration of incompetence may impact decision-making capacity but does not automatically waive confidentiality.
2. When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?
- A. 2 liters/minute
- B. 4 liters/minute
- C. 6 liters/minute
- D. 8 liters/minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client needs oxygen therapy, the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Higher flow rates must be delivered by a mask. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest flow rates that exceed what can be effectively delivered through a nasal cannula.
3. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?
- A. paralysis
- B. neuropathy
- C. seizure disorder
- D. myocardial infarction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.
4. When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:
- A. The new graduate nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with 50cc of NS.
- B. The new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide.
- C. The new graduate packs the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in NS.
- D. The new graduate applies a Duoderm dressing over the wound after cleansing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.
5. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?
- A. Respiratory Isolation
- B. Standard Precautions
- C. Contact Isolation
- D. Droplet Isolation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.
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