NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Under what circumstances is the legal right to confidentiality of client information waived?
- A. When a court system subpoenas information.
- B. When a family member requests health care information of a client.
- C. When a living will takes effect.
- D. When the client is declared incompetent by the legal system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when a court system subpoenas information. This occurs when information is required for legal proceedings to occur, such as through summonses, court orders, or litigation information necessary for the court. Subpoenas are legal orders that compel the disclosure of information. The other choices do not inherently waive the legal right to confidentiality. A family member's request for health care information would typically require the client's consent or fall under specific legal exceptions. A living will dictates end-of-life care preferences but does not necessarily waive confidentiality. Lastly, the declaration of incompetence may impact decision-making capacity but does not automatically waive confidentiality.
2. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?
- A. "Make it a stat delivery."?
- B. "Please do it as soon as you can after break."?
- C. "This client is delirious, and we're worried about urinary sepsis."?
- D. "Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. In this scenario, the most appropriate direction is to ensure the urine specimen is collected promptly and delivered to the lab immediately. Choice A is too vague and does not specify the urgency required. Choice B does not emphasize the immediate need for the specimen to be delivered. Choice C introduces unnecessary medical information that is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant and may cause confusion. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it provides clear instructions for immediate action without room for misunderstanding.
3. A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:
- A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
- B. the client has a Foley catheter.
- C. the client's family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
- D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.
Correct answer: V
Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.
4. What is the role of an incident report in risk management?
- A. To provide liability protection.
- B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
- C. To discipline staff for errors.
- D. All of the above.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incident reports play a crucial role in risk management by providing data for analysis to prevent future problems. They are not primarily for liability protection (A) or disciplining staff (C). Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer. Choosing option D is incorrect because incident reports do not solely exist for all the mentioned purposes, but primarily to provide data for analysis and preventive actions.
5. When a client has a chest drainage system in place, where should the system be placed?
- A. above the level of the client's chest
- B. at the level of the client's shoulders
- C. at the level of the chest
- D. below the level of the chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A chest drainage system should be placed below the level of the client's chest to ensure proper drainage of fluid from the chest. Placing the system above the level of the chest or at the shoulders would not allow gravity to assist in the drainage process, potentially leading to complications such as fluid accumulation. Similarly, placing it at the level of the chest would not create the necessary gravity-dependent flow for effective drainage, which is crucial for the proper functioning of the chest drainage system.
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