Nursing Elites

1. A licensed practical nurse tells the certified nursing assistant (CNA) staff that they will need to comply with the mandatory overtime policy that the long-term care facility has implemented. Later that day, the nurse overhears a CNA complaining about the policy and telling other CNAs that she will not work the overtime if she has made other plans after her regular shift. What is the best approach for the nurse to use in dealing with the conflict?

• A. Providing a positive reward system for the CNA to encourage working the mandatory overtime
• B. Ignoring the complaints
• C. Avoiding assigning the CNA mandatory overtime
• D. Meeting with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the best approach for the nurse is to meet with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy. Initiating a discussion is crucial to address resistance by a staff member. A face-to-face meeting allows for the verbalization of feelings, identification of problems, and the opportunity to develop strategies to solve the issue. Ignoring the complaints and avoiding assigning mandatory overtime do not tackle the root of the problem. Providing a positive reward system might offer a temporary fix but does not directly address the resistance and conflict.

2. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, which typically presents with maculopapular lesions around the mouth with honey-colored drainage, worsening with scratching. It is important to advise the caregiver that the history and presentation are indicative of impetigo, an infectious skin condition caused by bacteria. Treatment usually involves antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because chickenpox typically presents with a vesicular rash following a history of high fever. Choice B is incorrect as impetigo is contagious and requires precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice D is incorrect as impetigo is contagious irrespective of open wounds or lesions in others.

3. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

4. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

• A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
• B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

5. Which of the following devices may be applicable to a bedridden patient to address potential venous insufficiency?

• A. Shear-reducing mattress
• B. Sequential compression devices
• C. Hiking stockings
• D. Non-skid socks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a bedridden patient with potential venous insufficiency, sequential compression devices (SCDs) and compression stockings are appropriate choices. SCDs help improve venous return from the lower extremities by applying sequential pressure, aiding circulation. Compression stockings also assist in preventing blood from pooling in the legs by applying pressure to support venous return. Shear-reducing mattresses are not directly related to managing venous insufficiency, as they are designed to reduce friction and shear forces on the skin to prevent pressure ulcers. Non-skid socks are primarily used for fall prevention and have no direct impact on venous insufficiency.

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