in managing nausea related to morphine epidural analgesia the nurse should administer
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.

2. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.

3. A licensed practical nurse arrives at work at the long-term care center and is immediately faced with several activities that require attention. Which activity will the nurse attend to first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be attending to task assignments for the day. This ensures that client care can begin promptly and efficiently. Stocking the medication closet is important but can be done after ensuring task assignments are clear. Phone messages from employee health services and a client's wife, although important, can be addressed after organizing the staff for client care.

4. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

5. Upon admission, the client expresses a desire for an extra oxygen tank in their room due to a previous breathing issue. What is the most appropriate response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate response in this situation is to prioritize the availability of oxygen tanks for all patients in need. While it is understandable that the client may desire an extra tank for reassurance, the healthcare facility must ensure equitable distribution based on clinical need. Option A is incorrect because promising an always available extra tank may not be feasible and can set unrealistic expectations. Option B is not the best response as it focuses on past actions rather than addressing the current situation. Option C is not the most appropriate response at this time as the client's immediate need for an extra oxygen tank is the primary concern. Therefore, the best response is to emphasize the importance of equitable distribution of resources while acknowledging the client's request for an extra tank.

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