Nursing Elites

1. A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client's record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up?

• A. A client is performing their own colostomy irrigations.
• B. A client with a central venous catheter has a temperature of 100.6°F.
• C. A client who has just undergone surgery has a urine output of more than 30 mL/hr.
• D. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is self-administering insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A case manager is a healthcare professional responsible for coordinating a client's care from admission through and after discharge. They evaluate and update the plan of care as needed, monitoring for unexpected outcomes and providing follow-up. A temperature of 100.6°F in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected outcome that requires follow-up due to the potential indication of an infection. Choices A, C, and D describe expected outcomes and appropriate self-care management. The client self-irrigating their colostomy, a post-surgical client having adequate urine output, and a newly diagnosed diabetic self-administering insulin are all positive indicators of self-care and expected outcomes, not requiring immediate follow-up.

2. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

• A. moving calcium from bones to the bloodstream
• B. inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus
• C. promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
• D. enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.

3. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

4. When managing time effectively, which of the following stimuli should the nurse respond to first?

• A. the physician's loud verbal direction
• B. the nursing supervisor who is going to a meeting
• C. unit staff leaving on a break
• D. the care needs of the returning postoperative client just exiting the elevator

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to attend to the care needs of the returning postoperative client just exiting the elevator first. In a healthcare setting, patient care should always take precedence, especially for complex or unstable clients requiring immediate assessment and care. The physician's loud verbal direction, the nursing supervisor going to a meeting, and unit staff leaving on a break are important but do not involve direct patient care. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize responding to the returning postoperative client to ensure their immediate needs are met.

5. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

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