Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting a new nursing graduate with organizational skills in delivering client care. The nurse determines that the new nursing graduate needs assistance with time management if the new graduate takes which action?

• A. Gathers supplies before beginning a task
• B. Allows time for unexpected tasks
• C. Prioritizes client needs and daily tasks
• D. Documents task completion and client information at the end of the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Gathers supplies before beginning a task.' This action indicates a lack of effective time management because gathering supplies before starting a task can lead to inefficiency and time wastage. Effective time management involves organizing tasks efficiently, which includes having all necessary supplies ready before initiating a task. Allowing time for unexpected tasks, prioritizing client needs and daily tasks, and documenting task completion and client information at the end of the day are all essential components of good time management practices. Therefore, the new nursing graduate should focus on improving the timing of supply gathering to enhance time management skills. The other choices are not indicative of poor time management; instead, they demonstrate important aspects of effective time management in client care delivery.

2. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

• A. Dysreflexia
• B. Risk for Injury
• C. Urinary Retention
• D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Injury.' Epileptic clients are at risk for injury due to complications of seizure activity, such as falls that could lead to head trauma. 'Dysreflexia' is not typically associated with epilepsy but rather with spinal cord injury. 'Urinary Retention' is not a common nursing diagnosis for epileptic clients unless specifically indicated. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' may not be a priority nursing diagnosis compared to the immediate risk of injury in epileptic clients.

3. When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?

• A. grief work facilitation
• B. vital signs monitoring
• C. medication administration: skin
• D. anxiety reduction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'grief work facilitation' because it is a nursing intervention classification specifically designed to address disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome of this intervention is grief resolution, which can help the client cope with the body image changes resulting from the burn. Choice B, 'vital signs monitoring,' is not the appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in burn clients. Vital signs monitoring is typically used for assessing physiological parameters like blood pressure, pulse rate, and temperature. Choice C, 'medication administration: skin,' is more focused on treating skin-related issues rather than addressing body image disturbance. It involves the administration of medications to promote skin healing and integrity. Choice D, 'anxiety reduction,' is aimed at managing anxiety in clients with major burns and is not specifically targeted at addressing body image disturbance. While anxiety may be a common emotional response to burns, the most appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in this scenario is 'grief work facilitation.'

4. A client has been placed in isolation because he is diagnosed with a contagious illness. The nurse should be aware that:

• A. Linens from the client's bed should be double-bagged.
• B. Meals should be served on washable dishes.
• C. Extensive isolation rarely causes psychological problems.
• D. Paper trays and plastic utensils do not prevent disease transmission.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isolation techniques are used to prevent or limit the spread of infection. Special handling of articles and linens soiled by any body fluid is essential. Linens should be placed in impervious bags before being removed from the client's bedside to prevent exposure of personnel and contamination of the environment. Double-bagging is required if the outside of the bag becomes contaminated. This practice ensures that potentially infectious materials are properly contained and disposed of. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the focus in this scenario is on proper handling and disposal of soiled linens to prevent the spread of infection, not on serving meals, psychological effects of isolation, or the use of paper trays and plastic utensils.

5. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

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