NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?
- A. delta sleep
- B. slow brain waves
- C. pneumonia
- D. circadian rhythm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.
2. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
3. When are standard walkers typically used?
- A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
- B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
- C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
- D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.
4. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for a client with a new colostomy?
- A. Excess Fluid Volume
- B. Risk for Aspiration
- C. Disturbed Body Image
- D. Urinary Retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Disturbed Body Image is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with a new colostomy. A new colostomy can significantly impact a person's body image and self-esteem due to the physical changes it brings. This can lead to emotional distress, adjustment issues, and concerns about body image. Excess Fluid Volume, Risk for Aspiration, and Urinary Retention are not directly related to the psychosocial impact of a new colostomy and are therefore not as relevant in this context. While Excess Fluid Volume, Risk for Aspiration, and Urinary Retention are important nursing diagnoses, they are not the priority when considering the psychological and emotional effects of a new colostomy.
5. When should the biohazard emblem be affixed to containers according to the orientation nurse educator reviewing the biohazard legend with a class of new employees?
- A. when there is presence of blood and body fluids.
- B. when there is the need for droplet precautions.
- C. when there is contact isolation.
- D. when there is the potential for airborne transmission.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'when there is presence of blood and body fluids.' When handling body substances like blood and body fluids, the risk of transmission of infections increases. Federal regulations mandate warning labels on containers to alert employees and waste collectors. The biohazard emblem consists of a three-ring symbol overlaying a central concentric ring. Blood, wound drainage, feces, and urine are examples of body fluids that can transmit infections and diseases to others. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the presence of the biohazard emblem is specifically linked to the handling of blood and body fluids, not to droplet precautions, contact isolation, or airborne transmission.
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