a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 am has a temperature of 991 f at 4 am the nurse determines that this is most lik
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m.?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

2. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate action the nurse should take after the baby delivers is to suction the baby's mouth and nose to ensure the infant can breathe properly. This helps clear any potential obstructions and establish a clear airway. Cutting the umbilical cord (Choice B) and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket (Choice D) are important steps but should come after ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Placing extra padding under the mother (Choice A) is not a priority in this emergency situation as the focus should be on the baby's immediate needs for breathing and airway clearance.

3. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.

4. A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct choice is apple juice with a liquid thickener. A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration, so it is crucial to start with liquids and assess the client's ability to swallow before introducing solid foods. Using a liquid thickener with apple juice allows the healthcare provider to evaluate swallowing function. Jell-O™, although it melts into a clear liquid, should be avoided initially as it may not provide a clear assessment of swallowing ability. Diced fruit and toast are solid foods that should be introduced only after the client's swallowing ability with liquids has been assessed.

5. A young boy is recently diagnosed with a seizure disorder. Which of the following statements by the boy's mother indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is "I should lay him on his back during a seizure."? This statement indicates a need for further teaching because a client having a seizure should be turned to the side to prevent aspiration of secretions. Choices A, B, and D are correct. Getting plenty of rest helps in managing seizures, having a medical alert bracelet informs others about the condition in case of emergency, and loosening clothing during a seizure ensures better air circulation and prevents injury. These actions demonstrate adequate understanding of the teaching provided.

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