a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 am has a temperature of 991 f at 4 am the nurse determines that this is most lik
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

2. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.

3. Which of the following statements to the client's family would be appropriate when preparing to provide postmortem care to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement when preparing to provide postmortem care to the client's family is to assure them that the family member will be properly identified before transportation. This is crucial in ensuring the correct individual is being handled respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the essential aspect of ensuring the proper identification of the deceased before transportation. It is important to allow the family to see their loved one after postmortem care and, if possible, incorporate any cultural practices. Providing comfort and support to the family during this difficult time is also essential in delivering holistic care.

4. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.

5. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

Similar Questions

When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?
When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?
The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:
Once the nurse has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client should be cared for first?
During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses