a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 am has a temperature of 991 f at 4 am the nurse determines that this is most lik
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

2. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting bile is not typically a sign of internal bleeding but is more commonly associated with issues in the gastrointestinal tract. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities, a tender, rigid abdomen, and bruising. Painful or swollen extremities can indicate bleeding from an extremity injury, a tender, rigid abdomen can signal abdominal bleeding, and bruising can result from blood vessel damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: vomiting bile,' as it is not a typical sign of internal bleeding.

3. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

4. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

5. A client with a closed chest tube drainage system accidentally disconnects the chest tube while being turned by the nurse. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a chest tube becomes disconnected, the priority action is to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. This helps prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing complications. Calling the health care provider is important but not the first action in this emergency. Instructing the client to inhale and hold his breath should be avoided as it can introduce atmospheric air into the pleural space, leading to potential issues. Clamping the chest tube is generally contraindicated, especially in cases of residual air leak or pneumothorax, as it may result in a tension pneumothorax by preventing air from escaping.

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