Nursing Elites

1. A client scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Tape the wedding band in place
• B. Ask the client to sign a release freeing the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery
• C. Explain to the client why the wedding band must be removed
• D. Ask the client whether she would like to remove the wedding band or wear it to surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In most situations, a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if there is a possibility that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is usually asked to sign a form that releases the agency from responsibility if a client's valuables are lost. After a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which can result in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why. This ensures the client's safety and prevents potential complications. Option A is incorrect because taping the wedding band may not be sufficient if swelling occurs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to remove the wedding band. Option D is incorrect because it fails to provide the client with the necessary information about the potential risks of wearing the wedding band during surgery.

2. What type of injury is associated with acute hyphema?

• A. orthopedic
• B. eye
• C. insect sting or snakebite
• D. gynecological trauma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute hyphema is associated with an eye injury, typically resulting from blunt trauma. The presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye causes a half-moon appearance or a horizontal line across the globe when the client is upright. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because acute hyphema is not related to orthopedic injuries, insect stings, snakebites, or gynecological trauma.

3. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

4. Which of the following is true of advanced directives?

• A. They should be appropriately documented in the client's chart.
• B. They are only applicable if the client has a terminal illness.
• C. They are required if the client is unconscious.
• D. They are non-legal requests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that advanced directives should be appropriately documented in the client's chart. Advanced directives are legal requests regarding a client's healthcare that come into effect under specific circumstances, regardless of the severity of their illness or level of consciousness. Choice B is incorrect because advanced directives can cover various healthcare decisions, not just terminal illnesses. Choice C is incorrect as advanced directives can be established and documented while the client is conscious, not only if they are unconscious. Choice D is incorrect because advanced directives are indeed legal requests, not non-legal requests.

5. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

• A. 5:01
• B. 1:05
• C. 15:02
• D. 2:15

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

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