Nursing Elites

1. A client scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Tape the wedding band in place
• B. Ask the client to sign a release freeing the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery
• C. Explain to the client why the wedding band must be removed
• D. Ask the client whether she would like to remove the wedding band or wear it to surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In most situations, a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if there is a possibility that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is usually asked to sign a form that releases the agency from responsibility if a client's valuables are lost. After a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which can result in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why. This ensures the client's safety and prevents potential complications. Option A is incorrect because taping the wedding band may not be sufficient if swelling occurs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to remove the wedding band. Option D is incorrect because it fails to provide the client with the necessary information about the potential risks of wearing the wedding band during surgery.

2. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

3. A client being treated for sickle cell disease has an order for pain medication. Morphine was ordered, but the nurse is having difficulty deciphering the dose. The nurse should ____.

• A. ask the attending physician to clarify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• B. call the charge nurse to inform the attending physician and verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• C. call the attending physician to verbally verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• D. refrain from administering the medication until the charge nurse can assist in determining the correct dosage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when a nurse encounters difficulties in deciphering an order, the appropriate action is to contact the attending physician directly to clarify and verify the medication, dose, route, and frequency. It is crucial for the nurse to have a clear understanding of the order before administering any medication to ensure patient safety and proper treatment. Option A is incorrect as it suggests asking the attending physician to clarify without specifying the urgency of the situation. Option B involves an unnecessary additional step by first contacting the charge nurse before reaching out to the attending physician, potentially delaying the clarification process. Option D is incorrect as it advises refraining from administering the medication, which may not be necessary if the correct dosage can be promptly verified by contacting the attending physician.

4. What intervention should the nurse take for a client who has sustained a hyphema?

• A. Instruct the client to wear eye protectors in the future
• B. Keep the client at bed rest, typically with the head of the bed propped up
• C. Apply atropine eyedrops
• D. Apply an ice pack to the site of injury

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has sustained a hyphema is to keep them at bed rest, usually with the head of the bed raised. This positioning helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent further damage or rebleeding. Instructing the client to wear eye protectors in the future (Choice A) is not the immediate intervention required for a hyphema. Applying atropine eyedrops (Choice C) is not typically indicated for a hyphema. Applying an ice pack to the site of injury (Choice D) is not recommended for a hyphema as it can increase the risk of rebleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is to keep the client at bed rest.

5. When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should she measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When sizing an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to reach the pharynx without being too long or too short. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the correct anatomical landmarks for determining the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear is a standard method to ensure proper airway size and prevent complications during airway management.

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