Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following indicates a hazard for a client on oxygen therapy?

• A. A 'No Smoking' sign is on the door.
• B. The client is wearing a synthetic gown.
• C. Electrical equipment is grounded.
• D. Matches are removed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client is wearing a synthetic gown. A synthetic gown might generate sparks of static electricity, which can be a fire hazard, especially in the presence of oxygen. Clients on oxygen therapy should wear cotton gowns to minimize the risk of fire. The other options are not hazards for a client on oxygen therapy: having a 'No Smoking' sign on the door promotes safety by preventing smoking, ensuring electrical equipment is grounded reduces the risk of electrical hazards, and removing matches decreases the risk of fire hazards.

2. When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?

• A. blood urea nitrogen
• B. serum calcium
• C. serum ammonia
• D. serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.

3. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

4. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

5. What condition is mammography used to detect?

• A. pain
• B. tumor
• C. edema
• D. epilepsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mammography is specifically used to detect tumors or abnormal growths, especially in breast tissue. It is not a tool for identifying pain, edema, or epilepsy. Therefore, the correct answer is 'tumor.' Pain is a symptom, edema is swelling, and epilepsy is a neurological disorder; none of these are conditions typically detected through mammography.

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