Nursing Elites

1. What type of injury is associated with acute hyphema?

• A. orthopedic
• B. eye
• C. insect sting or snakebite
• D. gynecological trauma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute hyphema is associated with an eye injury, typically resulting from blunt trauma. The presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye causes a half-moon appearance or a horizontal line across the globe when the client is upright. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because acute hyphema is not related to orthopedic injuries, insect stings, snakebites, or gynecological trauma.

2. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

3. What is the most effective way to prevent skin breakdown?

• A. assistive devices
• B. repositioning
• C. topical medications
• D. avoiding tape and bandages

Correct answer: V

Rationale: Repositioning is the most effective way to prevent skin breakdown. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on specific areas of the skin, reducing the risk of developing pressure ulcers. While assistive devices (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases, they are not universally as effective as repositioning. Topical medications (Choice C) are primarily used for treating skin conditions and are not the primary focus for preventing skin breakdown. Avoiding tape and bandages (Choice D) is crucial to prevent skin irritation, but repositioning remains the most effective method to prevent skin breakdown.

4. Which of the following is not an advanced directive?

• A. informed consent
• B. living will
• C. durable power of attorney for health care
• D. health care proxy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention. It is not considered an advanced directive. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they are unable to communicate. A durable power of attorney for health care designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the patient. A health care proxy, which is another term for a durable power of attorney for health care, also involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions for an individual if they become unable to do so. Therefore, the correct answer is 'informed consent,' as it is not an advanced directive but rather a different aspect of patient care.

5. Which of the following is true of advanced directives?

• A. They should be appropriately documented in the client's chart.
• B. They are only applicable if the client has a terminal illness.
• C. They are required if the client is unconscious.
• D. They are non-legal requests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that advanced directives should be appropriately documented in the client's chart. Advanced directives are legal requests regarding a client's healthcare that come into effect under specific circumstances, regardless of the severity of their illness or level of consciousness. Choice B is incorrect because advanced directives can cover various healthcare decisions, not just terminal illnesses. Choice C is incorrect as advanced directives can be established and documented while the client is conscious, not only if they are unconscious. Choice D is incorrect because advanced directives are indeed legal requests, not non-legal requests.

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