which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when eaten by a client with an ileostomy which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when eaten by a client with an ileostomy
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Nursing Elites

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Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. Which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when consumed by a client with an ileostomy?

Correct answer: B: coffee

Rationale: The correct answer is coffee. Coffee can cause diarrhea in clients with an ileostomy due to its stimulating effect on the digestive system, leading to increased bowel movements. Eggs, fish, and garlic are less likely to cause diarrhea in individuals with an ileostomy. However, they may contribute to odor due to the way they are digested and broken down in the body, affecting the smell of stool output but not necessarily causing diarrhea.

2. When are standard walkers typically used?

Correct answer: When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.

Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.

3. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

Correct answer: every 24 hours

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with data collection of a client. The presence of which condition would cause the nurse to avoid testing range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine?

Correct answer: Neck trauma

Rationale: A nurse assisting with data collection for a client should avoid testing the range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine if the client has neck trauma. Neck trauma may have resulted in a cervical fracture, and further movement of the neck could lead to spinal cord injury. Testing ROM does not need to be avoided for headache, sinus infection, or muscle spasms as these conditions do not pose the same risk of exacerbating a potential cervical injury. Therefore, the correct answer is neck trauma.

5. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A: AST

Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.

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