Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

2. An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?

• A. a therapeutic effect
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse effect
• D. an incompatibility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.

3. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?

• A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
• B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
• C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
• D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.

4. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

5. A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about the use of latex condoms and the reduction of the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse provides which information to the adolescent?

• A. Using a latex condom is a good method for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
• B. The only way to reduce the risk of transmission of STIs is abstinence.
• C. A spermicide needs to be used along with a condom to prevent transmission of STIs.
• D. Using a latex condom can reduce the risk of transmission of STIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that using a condom during intercourse can reduce the risk of STI transmission. Abstinence is a way to prevent STIs, but not the only way. Using a spermicide along with a condom can help prevent pregnancy, not STIs. While condoms may fail to prevent pregnancy, they are effective in reducing the risk of STI transmission. Therefore, using a latex condom for pregnancy prevention is not directly related to preventing the transmission of STIs.

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