Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

2. A nurse observes a nursing assistant communicating with a hearing-impaired client in later adulthood. The nurse should intervene if the nursing assistant performs which action?

• A. Uses short sentences
• B. Speaks at a normal rate and volume
• C. Uses facial expressions or gestures
• D. Overarticulates words

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Overarticulates words.' When communicating with a hearing-impaired client who may rely on lip-reading, it is essential to speak clearly at a normal rate and volume. Overarticulating words can distort lip movements, making it harder for the client to understand. Using short sentences helps in conveying information effectively, allowing the client time to process. While facial expressions and gestures provide additional visual cues that aid in communication, overarticulating words can be counterproductive in this scenario. Therefore, the nursing assistant should avoid overarticulating words to ensure clear and concise communication for the client.

3. A healthcare professional reviewing the health care record of a client notes documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The healthcare professional understands that this indicates:

• A. Full ROM with gravity
• B. Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
• C. Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
• D. Full ROM against gravity with some resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4 indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1 indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0 indicates zero strength and no contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the description of muscle strength associated with a grade of 4.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?

• A. On the client's teeth
• B. On the client's forehead
• C. On the client's mastoid bone
• D. On the midline of the client's skull

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.

5. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.

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