NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. A nurse reviewing a client’s record notes that the result of the client’s latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client’s results in which way?
- A. The client is legally blind.
- B. The client has normal vision.
- C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
- D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Correct answer: The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.
2. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate for bowel sounds. The nurse should use which technique?
- A. Begin in the right lower quadrant.
- B. Use the bell end of the stethoscope.
- C. Hold the stethoscope lightly against the skin.
- D. Listen for at least 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent.
Correct answer: Begin in the right lower quadrant.
Rationale: To auscultate for bowel sounds, the nurse should use the diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope as bowel sounds are relatively high pitched. The stethoscope should be held lightly against the skin to avoid stimulating more bowel sounds. The nurse should begin in the right lower quadrant at the ileocecal valve, where bowel sounds are normally present. It is recommended to listen for 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent to ensure a thorough assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the bell end is used for low-pitched sounds such as heart sounds. Choice C is incorrect as holding the stethoscope firmly and deeply can cause unnecessary bowel sound stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as listening for 1 minute is insufficient to determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds.
3. While assisting with data collection of an adult client, a nurse asks the client to identify various odors. In this technique, which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
- A. Optic
- B. Abducens
- C. Olfactory
- D. Hypoglossal
Correct answer: Olfactory
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Olfactory.' The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. Assessing this nerve involves testing the client's ability to identify various odors. Loss of smell, head trauma, abnormal mental status, and suspected intracranial lesions are conditions where testing the olfactory nerve is essential. The optic nerve is evaluated for visual acuity and visual fields. The abducens nerve is usually assessed alongside the oculomotor and trochlear nerves, focusing on pupil size, regularity, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements. The hypoglossal nerve is examined by inspecting the tongue, not by assessing the sense of smell.
4. James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:
- A. denial
- B. suppression
- C. displacement
- D. fantasy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'displacement.' Displacement is a defense mechanism where emotions or impulses are transferred from their original source to a substitute target. In this scenario, James is displacing his anger from his teacher onto the dog. Choice A, 'denial,' involves refusing to acknowledge an unpleasant reality. Choice B, 'suppression,' is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts out of awareness. Choice D, 'fantasy,' refers to imagining scenarios that fulfill one's desires but are not based in reality.
5. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley’s level of anxiety as:
- A. mild.
- B. moderate.
- C. severe.
- D. panic.
Correct answer: severe.
Rationale: Explanation: Ashley is displaying symptoms of severe anxiety, including confusion, trouble focusing, dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. These somatic symptoms, along with changes in vital signs, indicate severe anxiety. In severe anxiety, individuals are unable to solve problems and have a poor grasp of their environment. On the other hand, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance, while moderate anxiety results in difficulty grasping information and minor changes in vital signs. Panic, the most severe level of anxiety, involves markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, based on Ashley's symptoms, her anxiety level should be assessed as severe.
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