Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a woman about possible side effects of hormone replacement therapy, the nurse should include information about all of the following except:

• A. Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.
• B. The possible return of monthly menses when taking combination hormones.
• C. Increased risk of gallbladder disease.
• D. Increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer with long-term use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.' When educating a woman about hormone replacement therapy, it is important to discuss the possible side effects. It is true that monthly menses might return when taking combination hormones, as the progestin can cause this. Additionally, there is an increased risk of gallbladder disease associated with hormone replacement therapy. Furthermore, long-term use of hormone replacement therapy is linked to an increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer. However, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy, especially in diabetic women. In fact, estrogen can have a positive impact on glucose control in some cases, so hypoglycemia would not be a typical concern.

2. A client states, "I eat a well-balanced diet. I do not smoke. I exercise regularly, and I have a yearly checkup with my physician. What else can I do to help prevent cancer?"? The nurse should respond with which of the following statements?

• A. Sleep at least 6-8 hours per night.
• B. Practice monthly self-breast examinations.
• C. Reduce stress.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the choices are methods of preventing cancer. Sleep is important in maintaining homeostasis, which helps the body respond to disease. Monthly breast examination can indicate cancer or fibrocystic disease. Stress can have a physiological response in the body that decreases the immune response and increases the risk of disease. Therefore, all the options provided are important in cancer prevention, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Option A is crucial for overall health and immune function, option B aids in early detection, and option C is vital as chronic stress can weaken the immune system.

3. A client in labor complains of back discomfort. Which position will best aid in relieving the discomfort? What position should the nurse encourage the mother to assume?

• A. Prone
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Hands and knees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During back labor, when the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman's sacral promontory, the hands-and-knees position is encouraged. This position helps the fetus move away from the sacral promontory, reducing back pain and enhancing the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. A prone position would be difficult for the woman to assume and not helpful in relieving back discomfort. The supine position is risky due to supine hypotension, while standing may increase pressure, worsening backache.

4. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
• B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
• C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
• D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

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