Nursing Elites

1. A client in the cardiac step-down unit requires suctioning for excess mucous secretions. The nurse should be most careful to monitor the client for which dysrhythmia during this procedure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Premature ventricular beats
• D. Heart block

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During suctioning, a vagal response can be triggered leading to bradycardia. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for this potential dysrhythmia. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely during suctioning and is not the priority. Premature ventricular beats (Choice C) and heart block (Choice D) can occur but are less common compared to bradycardia in this situation.

2. If the client is receiving peritoneal dialysis and the dialysate returns cloudy, what should the nurse do?

• A. Document the finding
• B. Send a specimen to the lab
• C. Strain the dialysate
• D. Obtain a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the dialysate returns cloudy, it could indicate the presence of infection, and sending a specimen to the lab for evaluation is crucial to determine the cause. Documenting the finding alone, as in choice A, may not provide enough information for proper intervention. Straining the dialysate, as in choice C, is not a standard practice and may not help identify the underlying issue. Obtaining a complete blood count, as in choice D, is not directly related to addressing cloudiness in the dialysate. However, the healthcare provider might order a white blood cell count to assess for infection.

3. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
• B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
• C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
• D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

4. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which item is most important to remove before sending the client to surgery?

• A. Hearing aid
• B. Contact lenses
• C. Wedding ring
• D. Artificial eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contact lenses. It is crucial to remove contact lenses before surgery to prevent corneal drying, especially with non-extended wear lenses. Leaving the hearing aid or artificial eye in place does not pose harm to the client during surgery. While wedding rings are typically covered with tape, leaving them on is acceptable. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario.

5. The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?

• A. Cyanocobalamin
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Streptokinase
• D. Sodium warfarin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its effects. Cyanocobalamin is a form of Vitamin B12 and is not used to reverse heparin effects. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that is used to dissolve blood clots, not to reverse heparin effects. Sodium warfarin is an anticoagulant, but it is not the antidote for heparin. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reverse the effects of heparin.

Similar Questions