Nursing Elites

1. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?

• A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
• D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.

2. After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:

• A. Report the incident to the Board of Nursing
• B. File a formal reprimand
• C. Terminate the nurse
• D. Charge the nurse with a tort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate action after discussing the problem with the nurse is to document the incident and file a formal reprimand. Reporting to the Board of Nursing may be necessary if the behavior persists or harm occurs to the client, but it is not the initial step. Termination should be considered if the issue continues despite warnings. Charging the nurse with a tort is not a suitable course of action in this situation as a tort refers to a wrongful act against a client or their belongings, not an appropriate disciplinary measure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. As a type of quality indicator, an example of a structure standard is:

• A. a written philosophy.
• B. a procedure for a straight catheterization.
• C. a protocol for treatment of a client with chest pain.
• D. the diagnostic work-up for a client with abdominal pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a written philosophy.' Structure standards define the conditions needed to operate a system and do not directly involve client care. Examples include philosophy, objectives, goals, hours of operation, and management responsibility. Choices B, C, and D involve specific procedures and protocols related to client care, which are not structure standards.

4. The primary organ for drug elimination is the:

• A. skin
• B. lung(s)
• C. kidney(s)
• D. liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the kidney(s) because most drugs are excreted in the urine, either as the parent compound or as drug metabolites. The skin is not the primary organ for drug elimination; only a few drugs are excreted in sweat. The lung(s) primarily excrete volatile gases with expiration, not drugs. While the liver metabolizes drugs, it is the kidney(s) that primarily eliminate drugs through urine, especially those with a molecular weight above 300.

5. What is a common characteristic of a batterer?

• A. Grew up in a loving, secure home
• B. Was an only child
• C. Was physically or psychologically abused
• D. Admits they have a problem with anger

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that a batterer is typically someone who was physically or psychologically abused. Research shows that many individuals who engage in abusive behavior report a history of being abused themselves. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is possible for a batterer to have grown up in a loving, secure home, been an only child, or acknowledge their anger issues, the most common factor associated with becoming a batterer is a history of being abused.

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