Nursing Elites

1. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?

• A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
• D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.

2. A nurse is teaching the mother of an 11-month-old infant how to clean the infant's teeth. The nurse tells the mother to take which action?

• A. Use a small amount of toothpaste and a soft-bristle toothbrush
• B. Use water and a cotton swab and rub the teeth
• C. Use diluted fluoride and rub the teeth with a soft washcloth
• D. Dip the infant's pacifier in maple syrup so that the infant will suck

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when cleaning an infant's teeth is to use water and a cotton swab to gently rub the teeth. This method helps in removing any food particles or plaque buildup without the risks associated with toothpaste ingestion. Using a small amount of toothpaste and a soft-bristle toothbrush is not recommended for infants as they may swallow the toothpaste, leading to potential fluoride ingestion issues. Using diluted fluoride and rubbing the teeth with a soft washcloth is unnecessary at this age since infants typically receive fluoride through other sources like formula. Dipping the infant's pacifier in maple syrup is highly inappropriate and poses a significant risk of tooth decay due to the high sugar content, which can harm the infant's teeth.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

4. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

5. A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

• A. Reinsert the protruding organ and cover with 4x4s
• B. Cover the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing
• C. Cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing
• D. Apply an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.

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