Nursing Elites

1. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

2. Lidocaine is a medication frequently ordered for the client experiencing

• A. Atrial tachycardia
• B. Ventricular tachycardia
• C. Heart block
• D. Ventricular bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lidocaine is used to treat ventricular tachycardia. This medication slowly exerts an antiarrhythmic effect by increasing the electrical stimulation threshold of the ventricles without depressing the force of ventricular contractions. It is not used for atrial arrhythmias; thus, answer A is incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because lidocaine does not slow the heart rate, so it is not used for heart block or bradycardia.

3. Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:

• A. hepatic clearance.
• B. total clearance.
• C. enterohepatic cycling.
• D. first-pass effect.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enterohepatic cycling.' This process involves drugs being excreted into bile, delivered to the intestines, reabsorbed into the circulation, and can prolong the drug's presence in the body. 'Hepatic clearance' (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug eliminated by the liver. 'Total clearance' (Choice B) is the sum of all types of clearance including renal, hepatic, and respiratory. 'First-pass effect' (Choice D) is the amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before entering circulation, reducing the amount of drug available for systemic circulation.

4. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?

• A. Starting an IV
• B. Applying oxygen
• C. Obtaining blood gases
• D. Medicating the client for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.

5. When questioning an elder about suspected abuse, how should the nurse keep the questions?

• A. Nonjudgmental.
• B. Probing.
• C. Confrontational.
• D. Indirect.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When questioning an elder about suspected abuse, the nurse should keep the questions nonjudgmental. This approach helps the elder feel safe and more willing to share information. Probing questions might be perceived as invasive, confrontational questions can lead to defensiveness and denial, and indirect questions may not elicit the necessary information, resulting in confusion or misinterpretation.

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