Nursing Elites

1. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

2. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?

• A. A client with Crohn's disease
• B. A client with pneumonia
• C. A client with gastritis
• D. A client with phlebitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.

3. A client reports that he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse observes this behavior. The nurse's next action should be:

• A. touching the client to help him return to reality
• B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
• C. asking the client to describe what is happening
• D. telling the client there are no voices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, the nurse should engage in a gentle touch to help the client return to reality. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge the client's experience and attempt to redirect them gently. Touch can provide grounding and connection. Asking the client to describe what is happening can be overwhelming and might exacerbate the situation. Leaving the client alone may not be safe or therapeutic as the client may need support. Telling the client there are no voices denies their reality and is not helpful in managing their experience.

4. During a school screening, a nurse notices small bruises on the anterior and posterior ribs of an 8-year-old Asian child. The nurse should ask the child:

• A. if the family practices coining
• B. who performs coinings
• C. if the child has fallen
• D. how long the child has been abused

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the family practices coining. In Asian cultures, coining is a traditional practice believed to draw infections from the body. It involves rubbing a heated coin on the chest and torso, which can cause bruising similar to what the nurse noticed on the child's ribs. This question is important to differentiate between cultural practices and potential child abuse. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assuming abuse without considering cultural practices can lead to misinterpretation and inappropriate actions. It's crucial for healthcare providers to be culturally sensitive and gather all relevant information before making conclusions.

5. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:

• A. affects both genders equally.
• B. is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.
• C. is usually diagnosed in early adulthood.
• D. does not have a clear protective hormone effect delaying diagnosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.

Similar Questions