Nursing Elites

1. A client tells the nurse that his wife's nagging really gets on his nerves. He asks the nurse to talk with her about her nagging during their family session tomorrow afternoon. Which of the following responses is the most therapeutic for the client?

• A. "Tell me more specifically about her complaints."?
• B. "Can you think of reasons why she might nag you so much?"?
• C. "I'll help you think about how to bring this up yourself tomorrow afternoon."?
• D. "Why do you want me to initiate this in tomorrow's session rather than you?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most therapeutic response is to empower the client to address the issue himself. By offering assistance in thinking about how to bring up the topic during the family session, the nurse is promoting the client's autonomy and communication skills. This response encourages the client to take an active role in resolving the situation. Choices A and B focus on the wife's behavior, which is not the immediate concern during this interaction. Choice D challenges the client's request and shifts the responsibility back to the client, potentially hindering progress and discouraging open communication.

2. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:

• A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
• B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
• C. Amphetamines produce a 10-20-second rush followed by a 2-4-hour high.
• D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.

3. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?

• A. AST
• B. Troponin
• C. CK-MB
• D. Myoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.

4. Which of the following statements by a client with spinal cord injury indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse regarding bowel management?

• A. "I should avoid eating foods that produce gas."?
• B. "I should drink more fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices."?
• C. "I should set a regular schedule for bowel movements."?
• D. "I should sit in an upright position for bowel movements."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected statement indicates the need for further teaching because it suggests consuming fluids like fruit juices, which can include caffeinated options that may stimulate fluid loss through increased urination. It is more appropriate to emphasize the consumption of fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices for proper hydration. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate a correct understanding of bowel management by focusing on dietary considerations, establishing a regular bowel movement schedule, and using proper positioning during bowel movements. Option B is incorrect as it may lead to increased fluid loss due to caffeine content in some fruit juices.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

Similar Questions