the doctor orders 2 nitroglycerin ointment in a 1 inch dose every 12 hours proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes
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NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.

2. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.

3. A two-year-old has been in the hospital for 3 weeks and has seldom seen family members due to isolation precautions. Which of the following hospitalization changes is most likely to be occurring?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation anxiety.' Separation anxiety is a common response in young children when they are separated from their primary caregivers for extended periods. In this case, the two-year-old being in the hospital for three weeks and not being able to see family members due to isolation precautions can trigger separation anxiety. 'Guilt' is a feeling of responsibility for wrongdoing, which is not the most likely change occurring in this scenario. 'Trust' involves reliance and confidence in others, not typically associated with prolonged separation from family. 'Shame' is a negative emotion related to feeling disgrace, which is not the most appropriate response in this hospitalization situation.

4. Which of the following roommates would be most suitable for the client with myasthenia gravis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client with myasthenia gravis is the client with hypothyroidism because they are quiet. A client with Crohn's disease (choice B) would be up to the bathroom frequently due to gastrointestinal issues, which could disturb the roommate with myasthenia gravis. A client with pyelonephritis (choice C) suffering from a kidney infection will need to urinate frequently, causing disturbances. A client with bronchitis (choice D) will be coughing, potentially disrupting the rest and quiet environment needed by a roommate with myasthenia gravis to manage their symptoms effectively.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

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