Nursing Elites

1. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:

• A. Rotating application sites
• B. Limiting applications to the chest
• C. Rubbing it into the skin
• D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.

2. Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

• A. the increased number of single-parent households in African-American communities
• B. more single-parent households in African-American communities
• C. stricter child-rearing practices in African-American households
• D. a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.

3. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?

• A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
• B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
• C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
• D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.

4. The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:

• A. Promethazine
• B. Aspirin
• C. Sitz baths
• D. Ice packs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?

• A. Uric acid of 5 mg/dL
• B. Hematocrit of 33%
• C. WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter
• D. Platelets 150,000 per cubic millimeter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

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