NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:
- A. Rotating application sites
- B. Limiting applications to the chest
- C. Rubbing it into the skin
- D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.
2. Narrow therapeutic index medications:
- A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
- B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
- C. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood
- D. have limited potency and side effects.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug, indicating the safety margin. Narrow therapeutic index medications have a small difference between minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood, making them high-risk drugs that require close monitoring to avoid toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because pharmacokinetics refer to drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, not the therapeutic index. Choice B is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs necessitate monitoring due to their narrow margin of safety. Choice D is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs do not necessarily have limited potency but are characterized by a small window between efficacy and toxicity.
3. The women's health charge nurse is making assignments for the next shift. The unit is short one staff member and will receive a nurse from the medical-surgical unit. Which group of clients should she assign to the medical-surgical nurse?
- A. Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction
- B. C-section planning discharge, post-partum infection, mastectomy
- C. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise, C-section with pneumonia, 32-week gestation with lymphoma
- D. 28-week gestation of bed rest, post-partum with HELLP syndrome, breast reconstruction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer includes clients who have undergone surgical procedures typically managed on a medical-surgical unit. Choice A consists of clients who have had elective surgical procedures such as hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, and breast reduction, which are commonly treated in a medical-surgical setting. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with various complications related to childbirth, fetal demise, pneumonia, gestational lymphoma, HELLP syndrome, and bed rest, which are more complex cases requiring specialized care beyond medical-surgical nursing.
4. If the nurse who was not promoted tells another friend, "I knew I'd never get the job. The hospital administrator hates me."? If she actually believes this of the administrator, who, in reality, knows little of her, she is demonstrating:
- A. compensation.
- B. reaction formation.
- C. projection.
- D. denial.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is demonstrating projection, attributing her own feelings of dislike onto the hospital administrator. This defense mechanism involves unconsciously adopting blaming behavior. Compensation involves emphasizing a strong point to make up for a perceived weakness, which is not the case here. Reaction formation is adopting behavior opposite to actual feelings, and denial involves ignoring an unpleasant reality, none of which are demonstrated in this scenario.
5. A client reports that someone is in the room and trying to kill him. The nurse's best response is:
- A. "No one is in your room. Let's get you more medicine."?
- B. "I do not see anyone, but you seem to be very frightened."?
- C. "No one can hurt you here."?
- D. "Just tell the person to go away."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client reports hallucinations or delusions, it is crucial to respond in a non-confrontational and empathetic manner. Choice B acknowledges the client's fear without confirming the delusion, showing understanding, and providing reassurance. This response validates the client's feelings without reinforcing the false belief. The other responses in choices A, C, and D dismiss the client's feelings or perceptions, which can escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access