Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

2. When auscultating breath sounds, the nurse auscultates over the following locations:

• A. Trachea and lateral areas of thoracic cage
• B. Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields
• C. The mid section as well as the lateral section of the lungs
• D. The mid-clavicular to mid-axillary lines comparing side to side

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields. When auscultating breath sounds, it is essential to listen to the front (anterior) and back (posterior) aspects of all lung fields. This comprehensive approach allows for a thorough assessment of breath sounds throughout the lungs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is too limited as it only focuses on the trachea and lateral areas, not covering all lung fields. Choice C is also too limited, referring to specific sections of the lungs (mid section and lateral section). Choice D is incorrect as it suggests comparing specific lines on the chest (mid-clavicular to mid-axillary), which is not a standard practice for auscultating breath sounds.

3. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

• A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
• B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
• C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
• D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Transfusing neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection is inappropriate in the care of a severely neutropenic client. Neutrophils normally comprise 70% of all white blood cells and can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production. Therefore, transfusing neutrophils is not a standard practice in caring for neutropenic clients. The other choices are appropriate in caring for a severely neutropenic client: excluding raw vegetables from the diet to reduce the risk of infections from potential pathogens, avoiding administering rectal suppositories to prevent any injury or infection due to mucosal damage, and prohibiting vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room to minimize the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens.

4. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

5. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

• A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
• B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
• C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
• D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

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