NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?
- A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.
2. A healthcare provider is screening patients for various vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?
- A. Diphtheria
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Mumps
- D. Tetanus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Mumps. The Mumps vaccine, along with the Rubella vaccine, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of affecting the developing fetus. Diphtheria, Hepatitis B, and Tetanus vaccines are considered safe during pregnancy and are often recommended to protect both the pregnant individual and the developing fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
3. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:
- A. to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.
- B. that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.
- C. that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.
- D. that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elderly persons with pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor, should be informed about the potential side effects of B12 injections. Diarrhea is a known transient side effect of B12 injections, along with pain and burning at the injection site, and peripheral vascular thrombosis. Increasing dietary intake of B12-rich foods would not be sufficient due to the malabsorption issue in pernicious anemia. Follow-up is essential in managing pernicious anemia, so instructing patients they do not need to return for follow-up is incorrect. While oral B12 may be a suitable option for some cases, it is not the preferred choice for pernicious anemia where malabsorption is the primary issue.
4. A client is admitted to the floor with vomiting and diarrhea for three days. She is receiving IV fluids at 200cc/hr via pump. A priority action for the nurse would be:
- A. Obtaining Intake and Output.
- B. Frequent lung assessments.
- C. Vital signs every shift.
- D. Monitoring the IV site for infiltration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct priority action for the nurse would be monitoring the IV site for infiltration. The client is receiving IV fluids at a rapid rate, making it crucial to ensure that the IV site is intact and not causing any complications like infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage. While frequent lung assessments are important for detecting signs of fluid overload, in this case, ensuring the IV site's integrity takes precedence. Obtaining Intake and Output is relevant but not the priority over monitoring the IV site. Vital signs are essential, but given the situation, the immediate concern is the IV site's condition to prevent complications.
5. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:
- A. a maintenance dose.
- B. a loading dose.
- C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
- D. the medication to be given intravenously.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.
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