NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?
- A. Pain management
- B. Airway assessment
- C. Fluid volume status monitoring
- D. Risk for infection prevention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.
2. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. increased fibrinogen
- C. decreased fibrin split products
- D. decreased bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperkalemia.
- C. hypercalcemia.
- D. fluid volume deficit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.
4. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?
- A. None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.
- B. The increased gut motility decreases the absorption of the second drug.
- C. The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.
- D. Less of the second drug is absorbed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.
5. For a client with suspected appendicitis, where should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?
- A. upper right
- B. upper left
- C. lower right
- D. lower left
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic symptom of appendicitis. This tenderness is known as McBurney's point, which is located in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the tenderness associated with appendicitis is typically localized to the lower-right quadrant.
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