a 22 year old patient in a mental health lock down unit under suicide watch appears happy about being discharged which of the following is probably ha
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A 22-year-old patient in a mental health lock-down unit under suicide watch appears happy about being discharged. Which of the following is probably happening?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is concerning that a patient under suicide watch is happy about being discharged as it may indicate that the patient's suicide plan has advanced. This change in behavior should be taken seriously as it can signal an increased risk of self-harm. Choices A, C, and D are less likely as the patient's happiness about discharge in this context is more indicative of a worsening situation rather than positive outcomes like being around family, clarifying future plans, or improving mood.

2. A young female teenager describes a brutal assault and rape to the nurse on duty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a patient describes a brutal assault and rape, the first priority should be to provide emotional support and create a safe and supportive environment. This helps the patient feel secure and cared for, which is crucial for their well-being at that moment. Checking with the case manager about police intervention should come after ensuring the patient's immediate emotional needs are addressed. Cleaning the patient's wounds, though important, can be secondary to providing emotional stabilization. Referring the patient to a counselor specializing in trauma is also crucial for long-term support, but the immediate focus should be on providing emotional support and stability.

3. A nurse at an outpatient clinic is returning phone calls that have been made to the clinic. Which of the following calls should have the highest priority for medical intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient who received an upper extremity cast yesterday and reports not being able to feel their fingers in the right hand. This situation indicates a potential neurovascular issue that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options are of lesser priority: A - Breakdown of the heels, while concerning, is not an acute issue that necessitates immediate intervention. C - An ankle sprain that occurred two weeks ago is now subacute and unlikely to be an urgent medical concern. D - Pain in the knee following a total knee replacement (TKR) is common in the early postoperative period and is not unexpected.

4. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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