Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?

• A. An 8-year-old boy has been vomiting, appears to have slower movements, and has a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement.
• B. A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
• C. A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days and has a history of an anterior knee wound.
• D. A 7-year-old girl who had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.

2. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

3. Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?

• A. Client with a history of heart disease
• B. Client taking magnesium-based antacids
• C. Client with a parathyroid disorder
• D. Client admitted with alcohol abuse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.

4. While performing wound care to a donor skin graft site, the nurse notes some scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Leave the scabbed area alone and apply extra ointment
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Gently remove the debris and re-dress the wound
• D. Apply skin softening lotion for 3 hours and then re-dress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse notes scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood, it indicates the presence of debris that needs to be addressed. Leaving the scabbed area alone and applying extra ointment may not address the underlying issue and could lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important in some cases, but immediate action is required to prevent infection in this situation. Gently removing the debris and re-dressing the wound is the correct course of action to promote healing and prevent complications.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance would be the nurse's priority concern in the burn client?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoalbuminemia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. In a burn client, the nurse's priority concern is hyperkalemia due to cell lysis, which releases potassium into the bloodstream. This can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is less likely in burn clients. Hypoalbuminemia (Choice C) can occur but is not the priority in the immediate management of a burn client. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with burn injuries.

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