NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023
1. A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?
- A. An 8-year-old boy has been vomiting, appears to have slower movements, and has a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement.
- B. A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
- C. A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days and has a history of an anterior knee wound.
- D. A 7-year-old girl who had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.
2. Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?
- A. blood pressure control
- B. vitamin D activation
- C. erythropoietin production
- D. reabsorption of waste products
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is reabsorption of waste products because the kidneys excrete waste products rather than reabsorbing them. Choices A, B, and C are indeed primary functions of the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, activating vitamin D, and producing erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, the primary role of the kidneys is to filter blood, remove waste products, regulate fluid balance, and maintain electrolyte balance.
3. In alcoholics with anemia:
- A. Pernicious anemia is more common than folic acid deficiency.
- B. Iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist.
- C. The alcohol interferes with iron absorption.
- D. Oral vitamin replacement is contraindicated.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In alcoholics with anemia, iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist due to poor dietary intake and malabsorption issues associated with chronic alcohol consumption. Pernicious anemia, primarily related to vitamin B12 deficiency, is not commonly seen in alcoholics. While alcohol can interfere with iron absorption, it is not the sole factor contributing to anemia in alcoholics. Oral vitamin replacement is not contraindicated in alcoholics with anemia; however, it may be less effective due to absorption issues related to alcohol consumption.
4. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with an L4-5 HNP diagnosis. After 24 hours, the patient is able to ambulate with assistance and has reduced muscle spasms. Which of the following medications was the most beneficial in changing the patient's mobility status?
- A. Mivacron
- B. Atropine
- C. Bethanechol
- D. Flexeril
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Flexeril. Flexeril is a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat acute muscle pain and spasms. In this scenario, the patient experiencing reduced muscle spasms and improved mobility after taking Flexeril indicates its effectiveness. Choice A, Mivacron, is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is not typically used for muscle spasms or pain relief. Choice B, Atropine, is a medication used to treat certain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings, not muscle spasms. Choice C, Bethanechol, is a medication that stimulates bladder contractions and is not indicated for muscle spasms or mobility improvement.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?
- A. Herpes
- B. Scleroderma
- C. Dermatitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.
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